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Opioids IV tramadol questions

It's hard for me to tell anymore. I believe I used to get more of the opiate effect and it hit you harder and faster. But I've been abusing it for 2 or 3 years not and if I don't smoked weed with it, I don't nod out. Weed goes really well with it. But most of the time now I get amped up and well I use it as a high but also a motivational and alertness tool. Personally I don't think it matters. There are a lot of blood vessels there. And the nausea is lessened, but it doesn't totally go away. The down side is, if you take too much and it makes you throw up....it doesn't help. So you need to watch your dosing. The only thing I can tell you is get over the stigma, try it and see how you like it. I very highly suggest it normally over IV 100% suggested!
 
oh, I'm familiar with plugging--I've done it with hydrocone a lot. I just don't understand the metabolic process.

What does would recommend for plugging tramadol for the first time (I usually do 20mg of hydro, once a week). I know I should start slow, but I also want it to be a good time and not too weak.
 
It's been a long time since I did hydro...
I have been off of Tramadol for half a month or so. A little codeine just now and then. And I started with 200mg this evening. Usually BL suggests 100 to 200mg. I would stay shoot low, you can always redose. If you get sick, you can't undo that... You'll get the hang of it. It should take 30 to 45 min to kick in so that will give you a general idea.
 
avcpl said:
So, if plugging or IV would not be as good as taking orally because those ways bypass first-pass metabolism?
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Tramadol is active at multiple sites in the brain. However, the opioid agonism would remain the same no matter what route you consume it, because of the in vivo metabolization required to produce a recognizable opioid effect.
 
Source from erowid - DESCRIPTION
Tramadol is a quasi-narcotic analgesic used in the treatment of moderate to severe pain. It is a synthetic analog of codeine, but has a low binding affinity to the mu-opioid receptors. It has been prescribed off-label for the treatment of diabetic neuropathy and restless leg syndrome.

EFFECTS CLASSIFICATION

Non-opiate Synthetic Analgesic
 
Meaning it is chemically similar, but not the same thing. Think of it like benzodiazapines and nonbenzodiazapine hypnotics (zolpidem, etc).
 
I base the majority of my pharmaceutical knowledge through Erowid. If there are any other posts where I don't have a source please post them and I'll glady return to them and post source.

However, I will say that some excerpts are taken strictly from my college professors.

For example, My Anatomy and Physiology 2 teacher -- PhD is Biology -- told us that it is very rare for men to receive H.I.V from a woman even without wearing a condom. This is because the exterior of the vaginal lining doesn't contain any STD antigens, the vaginal wall lining would have to be cut, etc. I don't know if this is correct, or even logical for that matter. However, I have this in my notes and some of my statements are based entirely on those.


Anyways, the context I posted above is from Erowid, which I usually find to be correct. Am I mistaken?
 
jasoncrest said:
Actually I had to go through a few days of Bupe withdrawal very recently; and I had only Tramadols.
Shooting it (IV) gave an immediate relief. It carries all the risks of shooting any other pill though, and it's really not worth risking bad things only for Tramadol...
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Thats fuckin insane. What that guy is talking about is an anomley, dont ever do it.
 
StrawPipes said:
I base the majority of my pharmaceutical knowledge through Erowid. If there are any other posts where I don't have a source please post them and I'll glady return to them and post source.

However, I will say that some excerpts are taken strictly from my college professors.

For example, My Anatomy and Physiology 2 teacher -- PhD is Biology -- told us that it is very rare for men to receive H.I.V from a woman even without wearing a condom. This is because the exterior of the vaginal lining doesn't contain any STD antigens, the vaginal wall lining would have to be cut, etc. I don't know if this is correct, or even logical for that matter. However, I have this in my notes and some of my statements are based entirely on those.


Anyways, the context I posted above is from Erowid, which I usually find to be correct. Am I mistaken?
Click to expand...

I had to respond to this... I got burnt by ghonoria (sp) by this gir... REALLY quickly... I was not in her long..... HIV is VERY different... for what your professor said.. that is very true... it is...I dont feel like looking up the the numbers now... FAR easier for a woman to get HIV from a an that vice versa
 
Please reconsider IVing Tramadol. It's just not worth it. Here's a link to a study on the bioavailability of Tramadol. It is subject to first pass syndrome-so if you want to avoid this, you can take it rectally.

http://cat.inist.fr/?aModele=afficheN&cpsidt=1586570

Not trying to be gross but seriously, it would be safer to take it rectally than to IV it. Please, please reconsider and don't IV Tramadol. It's just not worth the risk.

Not trying to preach-just trying to look out for each other. Have fun and be healthy.
 
The injectable ampoules (50-100mg/ml) are available in Mexico readily and are much stronger naturally than the tablets. I find the Gruenthal-produced tram from Germany to be excellent for its smooth ER properties... Lots of marginal generics, though some may argue tramadol is tramadol... There are subtle differences. The best bet though is to find some 100 or 200mg ER pills and hide 'em for when the good stuff's all gone. It'll set you down easy...

As far as seizures, I've taken 1000+ mg in successive 24 hr periods to keep WD at bay, without seizure or any extra kick... 400mg is a decent/maximum threshold dose. I would say it's a get-you-out-of-bed-when-all-else-fails drug. Does not show up, incidentally, on opiate drug tests as it is synthetic.
 
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The prepared ampules work, just no rush like from anything really worth IV-ing. No rush, and it made me nauseous and I was no stranger to it...

Shooting the pill forms of tram does seem rather foolish. Willfully ignoring the wise advice proffered on this site, I mixed a 1mg lorazepam and 50mg of IR tramadol and filtered the solution six times, repeating the following process thrice: pulled the solution from the spoon through the cotton then shot that filtered solution back through a cotton-backfilled extra syringe, then repeated thrice until nearly all white precipitate was removed from the solution. Then straight in the arm. Report decent relaxation immediately from the lorazepam and the tram is easing in now...

Too much prep-time, a pain in the ass, but worth a shot. :) So neither was it the doomsday experience described widely above nor was it much to write home about. Bioavailability alone mitigates against it.

Skip it...
 
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A 10mg lorazepam?

I wouldn't bother shooting tramadol, I've known someone who tried it and said that it doesn't kick in any faster than when taken orally. It seems that if you're going to take the risk of shooting pills, they should at least have a better BA, and quick onset of action. I can't really make any judgements though, I'm sure there was a time when this would have seemed like a reasonable idea to me. Thank god for bluelight and the knowledge it has bestowed upon me.

I would be curious as to the effects of IV o-desmethyltramadol, I heard someone said it gave a nice rush like dilaudid, though that seems just to good to be true.
 
We're you using propylene glycol? Lorazepam is hardly soluble in water, and unless you're licking the cotton and spoon after you're shot, you're basically wasting it. You can find pharmaceutical grade propylene glycol on the Internet for pretty cheep if you don't want to waste you're benzos, but lorazepam is almost completely absorbed orally as it is, so there's not much of a point in shooting them (unless of course you like IV lorazepam)
 
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