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Opioids IV tramadol questions

jasoncrest said:
Actually I had to go through a few days of Bupe withdrawal very recently; and I had only Tramadols.
Shooting it (IV) gave an immediate relief (so Tramadol definitely does something even without being metabolized) (a stronger relief came after 2 hours though, so o-desmethyltramadol is still what gives most of the opiate-like effects of tramadols, but not all)

It carries all the risks of shooting any other pill though, and it's really not worth risking bad things only for Tramadol...
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i read some of your posts, can i get a list of all the pills you shot in your lifetime please =D ?

No man i am serious, i want a list!
 
enoughorangejuice? said:
ugh its not a good idea IMO.

A. its a shitty drug

B. its only good when your in withdrawal and have NOTHING else.

C. its a shitty drug

D. shooting shitty drugs are even worse than shooting good drugs
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LOLOLOLOLOL

Thats too funny........

Spot on
 
wiggi said:
^ Why bring up an old thread with information that has already been previously posted?
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I'm sorry. It just popped up under new posts and I don't pay much attention to the dates.
 
It's not a shitty drug.

Maybe you cant enjoy it because you have such a high tolorance to opiates, but I can, and I'd go as far as sayin trems are my 3rd most favorit drug.
 
There is something more to IV'ing tramadol than once thought. There IS an instant euphoria (which does feel somewhat opioid, somewhat speed like), but most that initial euphoria reward is unrelated to its opioid classic (M1) effects. In other words, tramadol itself, has been found to elicit DA release in NAC Shell largely independent of cloned mU agonism. Still, it is a week classic agonist, so some of it comes from there. Personally, I think it's our incomplete understanding of opioid binding strengths, and sub (typ) gene expression. Tramadol is a bit more powerful (even before being metabolized) than the literature says. It just doesn't attach with great affinity to the cloned mU genes. However, it indirectly activates mU receptors (1&2) through serotonin pathway (consistent with some posters who say IV tram stopped their WD stat). Tram is one of my fav. Just got added to KY narcotics list unfortunately though :( It'll prob be made CIII once tapentadol comes out, thus, assuring less sales of generic tramadol. You can count on the crookedness of our FDA. Crap like Kadian (which is really just morphine sulphate) is given patent protection due to it's novel encapsulation bullshit. It's really criminal.
 
I had to bump after reading this. Ok first off, for all you people saying tramadol is a good opiate, tramadol is bad opiate, the fact is this: Tramadol is a NON-opiate. It's a quasi-narcotic analgesic; also It's a synthetic analog of codeine; . Which means that it has similar structure and similar chemical properties but differs by a single element or compund. And as my thread in ADD indicated, Codeine passes the BBB faster than morphine, so you would think that an analog of codeine which is very similar would be a nice euphoric rush, theoretically speaking anyways..
 
If it has affinity for MU, d, k, (possibly sigma) and is synthetic, then its an opioid. it may be a low potency one, but none the less, synthetic narcotics are still commonly called opiates, despite the slight lexicon variations...Why i'm looking at a duragesic in health canada approved packaging that says öpioid analgesic" I don't have recollection of fentanyl being derived from opium alkaloids either. tramadol has mu and k affinity. Weakly sure, but its still an opioid. The semantics of things vary by region and person.

i've had the IV vials of it, and it produces no special rush or otherwise worthwhile reason to IV it from pills though. Just eat em.
 
StrawPipes said:
I had to bump after reading this. Ok first off, for all you people saying tramadol is a good opiate, tramadol is bad opiate, the fact is this: Tramadol is a NON-opiate. It's a quasi-narcotic analgesic; also It's a synthetic analog of codeine; . Which means that it has similar structure and similar chemical properties but differs by a single element or compund. And as my thread in ADD indicated, Codeine passes the BBB faster than morphine, so you would think that an analog of codeine which is very similar would be a nice euphoric rush, theoretically speaking anyways..
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I am wondering where you got this information. Tramadol and codeine are not related. Also, a synthetic opiate can't possibility be related to a natural or semi-synthetic chemically (Hence the name "Synthetic" or "man-made").

Tramadol is a pro-drug synthetic opiate, meaning it must be metabolized before the mu agonist effect can occur.
 
^
I've seen it listed as having a weak k and mu affinity before metabolism, just that its not very significant and the metabolite being the major clinically important opioid effect. so even in its own right, still a synthetic opioid.
 
I really don't like wikipedia sometimes. The person who wrote this failed to cite his sources a lot. Tramadol requires in vivo metabolization, to create O-Desmethyltramadol, which is the substance that has recognizable action at the mu receptor. Yes, tramadol may be active on its own to a point, but there's really no significant mode of action to matter. Tramadol is considered a partial pro-drug.

Also, the wikipedia article says that tramadol is a synthetic stripped down version of codeine (oxymoron much?). That's proof alone that the person who wrote the article is an idiot.
 
I just quickly checked drugbank thats run by U of Alberta actually, for the info on k and mu agonism. not a perfect site, but far superior to wiki.

personal experience would suggest similar, as it quickly caused miosis and reduced bowel motility, not explainable by SNRI effects.
 
Either way it's a great anti-deppresent. It used to make me feel really good after vicodins, back in the old days haha. I think everyone that hates it should not take it during withdrawl, if it's so useless haha.

Edit: Strong real opiates for the win :)
 
Not worth it. Seriously. I was just thinking back. There is NO rush. It takes a LOT to get high. Tolerance goes up, needle sticks go up. Why end up looking like a pin-cushion for a non-regulated high. Eat the pills or if you are looking for that intense high, plug it.
Crush, add water, oral syringe.
 
Unknown said:
I really don't like wikipedia sometimes. The person who wrote this failed to cite his sources a lot. Tramadol requires in vivo metabolization, to create O-Desmethyltramadol, which is the substance that has recognizable action at the mu receptor. Yes, tramadol may be active on its own to a point, but there's really no significant mode of action to matter. Tramadol is considered a partial pro-drug.
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So, if plugging or IV would not be as good as taking orally because those ways bypass first-pass metabolism?
 
I have found plugging to be a better faster high. But everyone is different. I had to change just cause my stomach won't tolerate the stuff anymore
 
Maybe I should have said "different" rather than "not as good". Perhaps orally you get more of the opiate effect than with plugging? Or does it not matter because it gets metabolized by the liver into O-Desmethyltramadol eventually anyway?
 
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