This imo applies to modern medicine which seems to fundamentally be a corporate healthcare system.
A corporation is simply a legal fiction in which entries in a court of record are treated as human beings (so called "legal persons") in order for actual human beings (so called "natural persons") to act through those entities for reasons of achieving limited liability since nobody would engage in significant risks if they were personally liable as is the case with direct joint ownership. It seems to be popular these days for people to blame "the corporate system" but corporations are very useful fictions, unless you like the thought of being liable for $ 200 million debt. The real problem is the underlying philosophical basis that drives human society, which is postmodernism, reductive materialism and the religion of exponential growth of revenue. Corporations don't do a damn thing. Humans on the other hand do.
Fun fact: your town is organized as a municipal corporation but behaves in a totally different way from a merchant corporation such as The City of London Corp. (not to be confused with the city London) with an exterritorial status. Both are corporations but they act in totally different ways.
This is partly due to opioid-induced demyelination (
see here) which causes sutle impairment.
I know this article and I have several issues with it. One of the problems already starts with their "insightful" realization that
"polydrug use is particularly prevalent among patients with opioid use disorder. In the Netherlands, half of methadone users reported cocaine as their secondary drug. In a study in the United States, 60% of patients in a methadone maintenance program used crack cocaine and alcohol [7]. In Barcelona, more than one-third of heroin-addicted patients were found to be polydrug users when they BEGAN methadone maintenance treatment".
Hmmm...maybe...just maybe it has something to do with that maintenance treatment and less with the opioid dependence itself??? Maybe it has something to do with the fact that once you are in maintenance you cannot practice opioid rotation anymore (because the physician of today is more concerned with power plays rather than adhering to the hypocratic oath), which is proven, both in actual practice as well as in theory, to actually maintain the effects that drug users and pain patients alike perceive as positive when it comes to opioids.
Is it really ANY surprise then, that if I am taking one damn agonist for years and years, that I eventually won't be feeling anything at all anymore, which makes me crave other drugs to compensate for that loss???
It has nothing to do with eventual brain alterations that are being projected as being "pathological", but by the simple fact that those who are deemed as "recreational" users such as I, are taking the drug SPECIFICALLY and INTENTIONALLY to experience that so called "side effect" known as euphoria. Now take that feeling away and you'll end up with someone who is desperately seeking something that resembles that euphoria, no matter how remote that resemblance might be. This is why I don't take these "muh brain alterations" studies serious anymore, because it is the PERFECT example of why correlation isn't causation. These studies have become a marker to me, of who is merely an armchair, ivory tower theorist who is already starting his "scientific" research with a loaded question. Brain alterations don't prove anything because any chronic stimuli you experience alters the plasticity and even the (entire) rewiring of your neuronal pathways.
That's what makes epigenetics such a drastic influence when it comes to intergenerational trauma. If I subject you to operant conditioning, SOMETHING in your brain has changed. What does that actually prove? Well, nothing except the fact that your brain has changed which happens all the time for all sorts of reasons. What modern academia however does, is to point at those alterations and tell us "oh look, those changes happened WHILE and/or AFTER chronic intake of [insert "addictive" drug]. This can ONLY mean that trouble is afoot."
What they are NOT telling you however, not out of malice but out of psychological blind spots, is that the pathology is merely ascribed to those changes. I still don't have any proof that clearly shows the difference between a pathological brain change and a "normal" brain change. It is immediately assumed from the get-go that because self-medication is "bad", the associated changes within that brain must be "bad" too. How can we rule out that those changes are perhaps necessary adaptations of the brain to a playing field that has changed (and perhaps rapidly so)? Well, we don't because academia doesn't even ask those questions anymore. It is taking the ideas on which it operates for laws of nature which cannot be questioned.
Just to prevent any misunderstandings: I am NOT saying that these studies are worthless. All I am trying to say is that we can't even begin to classify biological changes as a reaction to something as normal or abnormal, healthy or unhealthy, good or bad, if that something is heavily colored by completely outdated puritanical beliefs, which is something that is not scientific to begin with, which in turn begs the question of how scientific the conclusions drawn actually are. Nobody in the scientific "community" seems to ask this question for some reason, which displays a concerning lack of critical thinking...
Imo opiates are powerfully crude medications which whilst undeniably effective, lack sustainability (from a pharmacological and endocrine basis).
Any medicinal substance is going to lack sustainability if altered only with other cross-tolerant substances of the same class. The substance isn't to blame, the shitty protocol is.
Diabetes is more than just insulin. Infact the modern (corporate) medicine "solution" for diabetes is short-sighted and inadequate, it's far from a solution as it exacerbates the issue. This is all due to various misconceptions about insulin/diabetes which have apparently become engrained and accepted as absolute truth.
Look, you're missing the point I was trying to convey there. It's not about the insulin, it's about the fact that at the end of the day, the T1D patient needs his fix just as much to function as the heroin "junky" needs his fix. The fact is this -> both need the fix, so why is the other guy who is dependent on the "wrong" substance being criminalized and turned into a pariah, while the other one is treated as a poor patient who desperately needs the help of society? The insulin thing was just my rhetorical vehicle to get my point across...