Thanks for clarifying "χάραγμα", that does make things somewhat clearer, I guess I could have just googled it indeed.
SKL said:
Here's where you and I depart. Yes, spiritual beings are "paranormal" (I would say "preternatural") but that doesn't mean they can only be encountered in an altered state of consciousness. There just isn't an equivalence between these two things. Now, as most disagreements do, this boils down to the definition of a word. Perceiving a paranormal phenomenon does not, eo ipso, mean one is in an altered state of consciousness unless you define an altered state of consciousness to include any and all perceptions of paranormal phenomena to constitute an altered state of consciousness. As drug users know, there are all sorts of indicia of altered states. Now, some things like temporal lobe epilepsy that are associated with perceiving paranormal phenomena are very much altered states, but I wouldn't be too quick to make that equivalency.
I would preliminarily agree with you, I think, in that conceivably, paranormal phenomena could be perceived in a state of consciousness which was measurably "regular", so to speak. For the record I'm not particularly bound to my usage of the word paranormal. I can accept "preternatural" too, although I think paranormality implies preternaturalness, although the converse, admittedly, is not true.
SKL said:
I would start by seeing if they are associated with any paranormal phenomena to use your terminology or symptoms of possession or oppression to use explicitly Christian terminology.
I was going to say no at first - but as far as symptoms of possession, yes, definitely. There are many examples of drug induced altered states which result in symptoms which very much mirror states that in an earlier age, would be described as possession. Whether entities are involved, is, I think, an open question, since those possessed or deep in a drug induced psychosis are very rarely able to give a detailed account of their own experience of that possession, or drug induced psychosis, but in some cases, I'm sure they would describe a sense of being possessed. I myself have experienced a sensation of possession under the influence of 3-MeO-PCP, although I do not necessarily attribute it to an entity other than a part of myself that I no longer recognised, and the conflict was fortuitously, a cognitive one, primarily, I was not compelled to behave in destructive or "demonic" ways.
SKL said:
I didn't say that. I said that they did not usually manifest themselves in dramatic phenomena like what is called "demonic possession" (which phenomenon is an undoubtedly real thing, even if that's not what it actually is.) There are
very dramatic phenomena associated with "good spiritual beings" (more) but sadly in our lives it would appear we are more likely to encounter a bad one in dramatic manifestation than a good one in the same. This is very much not to say that we don't have them acting on our lives, but that goes beyond the scope that we are agreeing to here.
Hmm... OK, I won't explicitly disagree given your clarification that the phenomenon (of demomic possession, at least) is real even if the description of it is inaccurate. I have a hard time finding that story of the Miracle of the Sun convincing, as ever, it's convenient that it happened in an age before digital video cameras and satellites pointed at and recording solar activity constantly. I would however argue that "angelic possession" is simply not a recognised phenomenon because the changes it would induce in a person would not or at least, presumably, should not cause distress or a need to pathologise or explain it. There seem to be quite clear reasons why demonic possession has been, historically, more commonly reported than "angelic possession", which presumably in most cases would manifest simply as someone deciding to become an extremely selfless, giving, overall good person who people enjoyed being around. No-one would have any reason to suggest this person was "possessed", even if the transformation was dramatic. We would just attribute it to someone who managed to turn their life around, of their own volition and will.
SKL said:
What I'm saying, highly specifically and more formally, is that any (a) paranormal phenomenon that is more than a mere hallucination is not solely drug induced
I can agree with that.
SKL said:
and (b) drugs never induce paranormal phenomena by themselves.
I think this is simply unverifiable. Paranormal phenomena seem to be, almost by definition, unverifiable, so I cannot follow this line of reasoning.
SKL said:
If you don't believe in paranormal phenomena at all, that's something you should be able to agree with
I don't believe or disbelieve - I don't know. I believe it's probably, unlikely that any true paranormal phenomena have ever been observed by a human being, but I will not say it's explicitly impossible.
SKL said:
with the caveat that the set of phenomena conforming to proposition "(a)" is nil. If you do believe drugs, as such, can induce paranormal phenomena, then we disagree.
To expand on the above - I don't know. Admittedly, I do think it's unlikely that they can induce paranormal phenomena that are observable by anyone not experiencing the same drug induced experience, which most people would define, of course, as a hallucination. But I think this is also true of paranormal phenomena that are not drug induced, that unverifiable and to me quite dubious "Miracle of the Sun" you referenced notwithstanding.
But, I must admit I do not entirely follow how any part of this discussion supports the idea that "drug induced entities" belong in a class of their own. If this was not your intended meaning - and a quick re-read of your original post indicates that it might not be, simply that, usually, "drug induced entities" may not, actually be entities that exist in and of themselves, outside of our minds' simulation of reality. If this is all that you meant, and the same applies to any other "preternatural entity", experienced from a place that is not drug induced, then we may agree.
That said - given the known propensity for drugs to induce delusions, it might be arguable that if a preternatural entity is observed while not under the influence of a hallucinogen, this may be, arguably, more likely to be real than one that is observed under the influence of a powerful hallucinogen. Because obviously, this applies to absolutely anything mundane that we can usually perceive - the influence of a hallucinogen will reduce the likelihood of the reality of that perception. So maybe we don't disagree entirely, and I'll concede I may have misunderstood the context, but in my defence, I do think that the explicit distinction of "drug entities" as likely to be not real, implies a relevance beyond the simple fact that drugs - specifically psychedelics, which I assume is what we're mostly talking about here, really - distort our perception of reality such that this applies to every other element of our perception. Even if, admittedly, preternatural entities rather than simply, a swirly armchair, might quite rationally be argued to be less likely to be real than an object that we perceive on a day to day basis.
SKL said:
I'm trying not to let religious dogma as such define what I'm trying to say, and I hope I'm succeeding.
You have, I believe, and thank you for it, I don't think we really disagree as such, just attribute different amounts of relevance to different aspects of the topics under discussion. This has been an interesting discussion to attempt to parse.