have searched and read a great deal trying to find an approximate answer to my questions.
As a partial agonist do researchers know the extent of receptor activation caused by buprenorphine? Meaning the MU receptors are agonized 33% with regard to buprenorphine in relation the a full agonist.
From all I've ever read, buprenorphine's maximum agonistic effects are equipotent to 30-40mg of methadone.
Next, do we have an approximate range in relation to tolerance to where somebody who doses buprenorphine will not feel its effects?
Using Oxy as an example. If person A has a tolerance of 70 mg daily Oxy and doses with buprenorphine the only subjective effects noticed are being normal, no withdrawals.
Person B tolerance level is 30 mg Oxy and if they take buprenorphine they will stay well plus get stimulant/euphoric effects.
Well, first of all I'd be willing to bet that if you administered someone who was taking
70mg of oxy with 2mg of buprenorphine, that they would get euphoric effects from it too. In fact, I've seen people who were serious I.V heroin addicts get stoned off of buprenorphine.
I'm just trying to see about what dose range of a full agonist and tolerance where the partial agonist attribute of buprenorphine kicks in.
Not looking for exact concrete numbers, but close range type numbers.
Like I said above, suboxone has the agonist effect that's somewhere in the range of 30-40mg of methadone. At what dosage (of bupe)that these agonist effects plateau (the ceiling dose) is unknown, though I believe it's around 4mg max, but most likely lower. Also, before we had buprenorphine in the form of suboxone and subutex, buprenorphine was
used(and still is) as an injectable pain medication for humans and animals called
Buprenex, and the dosages were .33mg/mL which was found to have the potency of 10mg of IV Morphine. However keep in mind that .33mg of buprenorphine is only equal to 10mg of intravenous Morphine if the buprenorphine is administered parentaly as well (Bupe's absorption rate varies wildly depending on how it is administered and 1/3 of a mg injected is approximately equal to 1mg administered sublignually).
So. Buprenorphine is about 30x the potency of morphine (when both are absorbed 100%) and buprenorphine's max agonist effects seem to be equipotent to a dose of methadone in the range of 30-40mg. I wish I could give more concrete answers, I myself used to research buprenorphine for hours trying to find out as much ask could about it, but it's difficult to get concrete answers, and you also can't always trust everything you read as Suboxone is a sensation subject and it's in a lot of people's best interest to spread misleading information or to just exclude certain information.
However, with a generic now available, hopefully there will be more information available that isn't tied in with a need to make buprenorphine seem 'safe', 'non-addictive' or 'weak' (all things that I was told back in 2006 when my outpatient program pushed it on me at 16-24mg/day). I don't mean to sound as if I am against buprenorphine as a form of treatment, IMO it's a great drug. I just have ways felt that info regarding it's use and effects has always been in small print or worded to mislead people for the sake of personal gain (though I guess I shouldn't be surprised that a large pharmaceutical company would try to do such a thing.)