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OD Moderators: Keif’ Richards | negrogesic
Bupe Suboxone/Buprenorphine FAQ & Megathread v3; 2010 - 2022
- Thread starter Thekid331
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Captain.Heroin
Bluelight Crew
Cool! When you work, it takes a lot more out of you than chilling out most of the time and not working so that can definitely account for why you are using more now.
Glad to hear you are working too!
graffmatic730
Bluelighter
i currently take 4mg(break the 8's in half) of suboxone. I don't feel it at all anymore(its been months). My question is, if i took a whole 8 would i feel that(not high per say but at least feel some mood lift)? or would i just be wasting another half?
speedballs_over
Bluelighter
It'd probably be a waste. Although someone will disagree. In general after taking bupe for a while, as with methadone, you develop a tolerance that makes recreational use pretty difficult. This is especially true with bupe as it has a "ceiling" effect.
caseface99
Bluelight Crew
Yeah, don't take another entire 4 mgs, try like 1mg.
Captain.Heroin
Bluelight Crew
slim567
Bluelighter
I got a ex-mate who is addicted to Subs...... the amazing part, he touched smack once, had no tolerance and therefore got a buzz off them, he took 3 x 8mg pills a day (snorted) Now he is on a script for it cus of the brown drought......... idiot :D
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caseface99
Bluelight Crew
Too bad he didn't come to bluelight first. If he had we would have told him that for getting a buzz well under 1mg is far more effective than 8mgs.
catcalls
Bluelighter
Why is that? I thought the more of a drug you took, the better it gets?
Captain.Heroin
Bluelight Crew
That's definitely not the way it works for buprenorphine, and I would definitely like to point out that psychedelics often have "breaking points", for a lack of a better word; the effects may intensify with a greater dosage, but the euphoria may be lost amongst overwhelming dysphoria.
caseface99
Bluelight Crew
Because buperenorphine metabolizes into norbuperenorphine, which itself acts as a full agonist on your μ-opioid, δ-opioid, and nociceptin receptors. Taking large doses of buperenorphine causes the blockade effect, blocking norbuperenorphine from having much of an effect, if i understand correctly. Captain do i have this right?
8L4YN3
Bluelighter
^Correct! Buprenorphine was alright when my tolerance was low enough to get high from it. It was alright though, excellect pain killer.
Captain.Heroin
Bluelight Crew
You sure do.
There is more to it than this, because buprenorphine in a high dose will act more like an antagonist and will cause uncomfortable akathisia and withdrawal-like symptoms.
There is also a correlation between this and buprenorphine's dose/effects curve. The effects increase rapidly over the initial low dose range, and then will begin to flatten past that. This means that beyond a certain point, you can take a significantly higher dose of buprenorphine, and you will only get slightly better effects, if at all.
caseface99
Bluelight Crew
Do you know why the blockade effect blocks all receptors, if buprenorphine itself is a mu opioid partial agonist and kappa antagonist? Does it block other receptors without stimulating them or what?
Captain.Heroin
Bluelight Crew
Can you be more specific? I guess I don't quite understand what you're trying to say.
caseface99
Bluelight Crew
Buprenorphine is a mu opioid partial agonist and kappa antagonist correct?
Norbuprenorphine is a μ-opioid, δ-opioid, and nociceptin full agonist.
So why do high doses of buprenorphine block norbuprenorphine, or heroin for that matter since it's active metabolites bind to the μ-opioid receptor as well?
Captain.Heroin
Bluelight Crew
Because of binding affinity.
We know that naloxone will throw heroin off of mu-opioid receptors, and prevent an overdose from being deadly.
Look at the affinity statistics for buprenorphine v naloxone here. Buprenorphine has a higher binding affinity than naloxone. It also has a higher binding affinity than norbuprenorphine, but I can't find information on this quickly.
caseface99
Bluelight Crew
I don't think you understand my question still, as naloxone has nothing to do with what I am asking.
![:\](https://bluelight.org/xf/BL_Images/Orig_Emoji/wrygrin.gif "wry grin :\")
How does buprenorphine block substances from binding to μ-opioid receptors if bupe itself doesn't bind to μ-opioid receptors? affinity shouldn't have anything to do with it if it doesn't even act on the receptor.
My sources say bupe only acts mu and kappa opioid receptors, but obviously it blocks opioids from binding to ANY type of receptor.
Binding affinitity only has anything to do with the answer to my question if bupe acts on all opioid receptors, and in that case i know the answer - im just confused because apparently bupe doesn't act on all opioid receptors.
Captain.Heroin
Bluelight Crew
I don't think you understand my question still, as naloxone has nothing to do with what I am asking.
How does buprenorphine block substances from binding to μ-opioid receptors if bupe itself doesn't bind to μ-opioid receptors? affinity shouldn't have anything to do with it if it doesn't even act on the receptor.
Unless my sources are wrong and buprenorphine does bind to μ-opioid receptors, and if it does, then this means it binds to the receptor without stimulating it?
Buprenorphine has to interact with the mu-opioid receptor.
I brought up the comparison with naloxone just as an example of buprenorphine having an extremely high affinity compared to most other opiates.
Buprenorphine effects some other receptors as well (delta opioid receptor, nociceptin receptor, ORL1 receptor, sigma receptor), and also not all opiates are incompatible with buprenorphine; any full agonist can be added on a medium/small/baseline dose of buprenorphine. At most doses, tramadol will still be compatible.
caseface99
Bluelight Crew
So if something interacts with the mu opioid receptor then it interacts with ALL opioid receptors?
The mu-opioid receptor IS an entirely different receptor than the μ-opioid receptor, right?
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