Opioids Extracting naloxone from tablets

[Like dead]

do you mean austria and not australia, cause i'm australian and heard of no tilidin; i'm on pain managment and have gone through pretty much through every opiate available by script here never to hear that combination uttered anywhere.

the ratio of opiate/nalaxone is only going to be relevant when the nalaxone out competes the opiate' in question binding affinity and half life

I did mean Australia, but that's based on the fact that I went to a pharmacy and asked them to print out info on tilidin. Usually if a drug (hydrocodone I think) is unavailable in Australia they don't have the info. They did print out info on tilidin for me, and the pharmacist said it was very rare and that she had never encountered it here.

Ok, il try to translate a relevant part of the text on wiki (the German and English are quite different). It says that the addition of naloxone is effective in preventing effects when used intravenously with the exception of buprenorphine. Then it says a bunch of stuff about the affinity to the receptors and that it's affinity isn't as high as naloxone. As fot the half life, the halflife of most opiates is greater than naloxones but the fact that the naloxone will slowly be metabolized means you loose the rush doesn't it? the halflife of tilidin is 4-6 hrs according to wiki. It has an oral ba of 90% but I already explained why I want to iv it so don't bash me. Naloxone has an oral ba of 2% and a halflife of 1-1.5 hrs according to wiki.

 

[Jabberwocky]

we don't have hydrocodone available to us in australia, nor in such a composition, i can garuntee we don't have hydrocodone prescribed, fullstop.

if this tilidin is a hydro/nalaxone combo it's not going to be safe to IV the hydro for a starters because hydrocodone itself isn't safe to IV through current studies.

 

[JamtasticX]

maybe I'm wrong but I see a flaw in this. Just like half lifes and elimination times the time it takes to degrade is essentially random.

Yes it may take 1 hour per 1 mg to degrade, but nothing is preventing it all to degrade in that time. Just like with something with a 1hr half life, half the drug could be gone in an hour or all of it.

You'd need to find a better way, a centrifuge seems to be the bes way to do this because although they are agonist/antagonist they are both opiods, so its going to be hard to di something to one and not the other

 

[Jabberwocky]

it really doesn't matter because the OP wants to inject a hydrocodone solution prepped through pills, which no half decent bluelilghter is going to anticipate

maybe i'm one eyed at the moment (it's highly likely as i am pretty damn drunk!) but look into the practice of IV'ing hydrocodone. if one of you other guys (OD mods) really think it's worth an ADD discussion now then go ahead.

 

[Like dead]

we don't have hydrocodone available to us in australia, nor in such a composition, i can garuntee we don't have hydrocodone prescribed, fullstop.

if this tilidin is a hydro/nalaxone combo it's not going to be safe to IV the hydro for a starters because hydrocodone itself isn't safe to IV through current studies.

Ok. You guys misunderstood me. In the post above I was using hydrocodone as an example. I couldn't get any info on hydrocodone from an Australian pharmacy because you don't have it. However there was info on tilidin so I assumed that you do have it. TILIDIN IS NOT HYDROCODONE. It is it's own opiate. It is commonly prescribed in europe. To the best of my knowlege it does not matter what opiate it is as long as it is present in larger quantities than naloxone.

Can someone please tell me if: 1mg naloxone is in combination with 12.5 mg opiate (tilidin in this case) and they both degrade at the same rate under the same conditions, will they degrade quantitively (1mg naloxone and 1mg opiate) or in proportion (1mg naloxone 12.5mg opiate). Does everyone understand the question now?

 

[Cane2theLeft]

^probably not your intent but that final inquiry came off a bit more condescending than say "did I explain it alright?" "Does that make sense?" etc.

but anyway, I got in from the beginning because I'm not australian

 

[Jabberwocky]

hey i understood the question but when a guy starts throwing around the words hydrocodone and IVing i'm gonna interject and warn.

i don't know the answer to the question but i understood what you were trying to convey, i was addressing other things so that if someone isn't aware of that and reads it they're now a little more equipped and aren't going to go running to the needle exchange to shoot up their vicoden. vin vin vin.

 

[Like dead]

^probably not your intent but that final inquiry came off a bit more condescending than say "did I explain it alright?" "Does that make sense?" etc.

but anyway, I got in from the beginning because I'm not australian

I'm sorry if that sounded rude, it wasn't meant to.

 

[Like dead]

I have a couple more questions and I might as well revive this thread before I start a new one. On one thread (about IV morphine) I saw a post from someone saying that they had IV'd kompot. A boiled down version of pod extract. I was wondering about the health risks associated with this since it seems to be quite common in Poland and very simple. According to the guy posting it was a nice, morphine-like rush. I know that there's other alkaloids (thebaine, papaverine, noscapaine, opaverine to name a few) and that there is a possibility of quite alot of sugars from the plant ending up in your shot. Anyone who has any info regarding the safety of this please post. Any experience would be appreciated.

This question is a fast one so... Why is it bad to inject a tablet containing paracetamol (and opiate)? I read an article about how there is an injectable formulation for paracetamol. The IV dose is not significantly less than the oral dose, so damage to the liver shouldn't be the reason. Most of the paracetamol is filtered out anyway (unless you boil your pill) because it is not very soluble in cold water. The paracetamol that does dissolve shouldn't pose any risk due to the low dose, the lack of solid particles, an the fact that it is used (with a different formulation to make I more soluble) in hospitals. That leaves the binders since there is a larger amount of binder needed for a bigger pill. Is that the reason? Because based on everything I know, if you micron filter your tablets it should not be dangerous at all. I'm not asking because I want to try injecting percocet or vicodin (can't get those anyway, I'm in Australia). I may start a new thread but as I said, might as well bump this one. I'm still curious.

 

[coldbleed]

iv hydro and you wont be like dead you will be dead

 

[Like dead]

First of all, I said I don't want to, it's just a question. Second, my user name is (more or less) the translation of the Latin narcotic (you couldn't have know that). Third, why? And I don't think you'd be dead because a few people have tried, I'm sure of it (and they survived). There's actualy a post about it. Apart from that, that's a pretty funny reply : ) but seriously, explain why.