Now that I've quit alcohol and scopolamine, it is time for me to tackle my sedative use. I began using low doses of carisoprodol to cope with the anxiety alcohol use was causing me, although I didn't realise at the time that the anxiety was being stirred up by the alcohol. I have generalized anxiety disorder and so thought the increased anxiety was just due to this. I found a way of finding the equivalent diazepam dose to carisoprodol (an equivalence factor for carisoprodol's active metabolite meprobamate) and it turned out that one 350 mg carisoprodol tablet is equivalent to around 8-10 mg of diazepam. I was using an average of a half to three quarters of a tablet, hence = 4-6 mg diazepam. Carisoprodol was starting to give me serious headaches, so I swapped it for an equivalent amount of zopiclone (7.5 mg of that equals 5 mg of diazepam, so I started with around 7.5 mg). I have since reduced to 4.2 mg, = 2.8 mg diazepam. I asked my psychiatrist if I could take diazepam to get off the zopiclone, and he first prescribed 3 mg of it, which we both thought was enough, but it only allowed me to halve my zopiclone use for the first two days, then on the third day I had to use a much larger amount due to withdrawals. I went back to the doctor and he prescribed 10 mg of diazepam, reducing by 1 mg each week, but even this dose has not fully substituted for the zopiclone. I just cannot understand it, especially as I am not using any other GABAergic sedatives. I have gone back to zopiclone and am dividing it into several mini-doses during the day by dissolving the tablets in water and then measuring out portions. This is not easy but I don't know what else to do, as quitting suddenly produces awful withdrawals. Does anyone have any idea why 10 mg of diazepam failed to take the place of 4.2 mg of zopiclone??
