I'm wondering about the severity of withdrawal between oxymorphone (opana) and oxycodone.
One of the main metaboltes of oxycodone is oxymorphone- the active ingredient of opana. Why would the withdrawals be any different between these two drugs, especially if really high doses of oxycodone were taken?
It seems like the only advantage to opana would be time of onset since the metabolite wouldn't have to be produced. Also it would seem as though there would only be a clinical benefit -ie. less of the drug could be administered. Thoughts?
One of the main metaboltes of oxycodone is oxymorphone- the active ingredient of opana. Why would the withdrawals be any different between these two drugs, especially if really high doses of oxycodone were taken?
It seems like the only advantage to opana would be time of onset since the metabolite wouldn't have to be produced. Also it would seem as though there would only be a clinical benefit -ie. less of the drug could be administered. Thoughts?
