Lightning-Nl
Bluelighter
- Joined
- Nov 11, 2012
- Messages
- 1,245
I'm asking this question because, until just now, I thought that for a very severe Meth overdose they would give the person an IV injection of Lorazepam every 15-minutes until the person has stabilized. But now that I think about it, Lorazepam is know to cause hallucinations at doses above 4 milligrams.
Maybe, where ever I read that from, said Diazepam instead of Lorazepam? If that's the case, however, why would the dose of Diazepam be so low to begin with, if the person is at risk of hemorraging, lesions, seizures, stroke, convulsions, and panic reactions? Would a high dose of Diazepam and then repeated lower doses if needed be way more effective (and life saving?)
What do you guys think?
Maybe, where ever I read that from, said Diazepam instead of Lorazepam? If that's the case, however, why would the dose of Diazepam be so low to begin with, if the person is at risk of hemorraging, lesions, seizures, stroke, convulsions, and panic reactions? Would a high dose of Diazepam and then repeated lower doses if needed be way more effective (and life saving?)
What do you guys think?