We all know that cocaine blocks the effects of methamphetamine due to its blocking the reuptake of dopamine and meth enhancing the reuptake right?
Lets suppose you have pure d-meth and pure cocaine. If you did the meth until you were fairly high, and then waited 4-5 hours for the effects to simmer down, then snorted the cocaine, wouldn't it have some sort of synergy? The meth would bring lots of dopamine in, and then the cocaine would trap it. Is this correct or is there something that I don't understand??
Lets suppose you have pure d-meth and pure cocaine. If you did the meth until you were fairly high, and then waited 4-5 hours for the effects to simmer down, then snorted the cocaine, wouldn't it have some sort of synergy? The meth would bring lots of dopamine in, and then the cocaine would trap it. Is this correct or is there something that I don't understand??