Furious George
Ex-Bluelighter
- Joined
- Mar 28, 2008
- Messages
- 642
Hi Guys,
I'm having a debate with someone on another forum about why they consider methcathinone to be "insanely neurotoxic" whilst they reject outright that 4MMCat is neurotoxic. There line of argument is:
"Any changes to molecular structure completely alter the pharmacological action of a drug.
Adding a 4 in the methyl position "seem" to vastly decrease dopamine displacement and increase 5HT affinities.
I have abused mephedrone and mcat (well, not mcat, but a pro-drug) and it is very obvious to see the difference between the two.
The main neurotoxicity of MA and MCAT come from oxidative damage and DA receptor damage (they also have a whole host of other nasty mechanisms), this is not evident at all with mephedrone."
So is this an accurate explaination or not. I'm no chemist, it's all Greek to me.
I'm having a debate with someone on another forum about why they consider methcathinone to be "insanely neurotoxic" whilst they reject outright that 4MMCat is neurotoxic. There line of argument is:
"Any changes to molecular structure completely alter the pharmacological action of a drug.
Adding a 4 in the methyl position "seem" to vastly decrease dopamine displacement and increase 5HT affinities.
I have abused mephedrone and mcat (well, not mcat, but a pro-drug) and it is very obvious to see the difference between the two.
The main neurotoxicity of MA and MCAT come from oxidative damage and DA receptor damage (they also have a whole host of other nasty mechanisms), this is not evident at all with mephedrone."
So is this an accurate explaination or not. I'm no chemist, it's all Greek to me.
