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technical biochem question

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krishnaya

krishnaya

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Dec 15, 2003
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So I know that the opiates/-oids bind to mu and kappa receptors. Do any other drugs do so? In other words, if I'm high on morphine, will that un-potentiate other drugs such as amphetamines or benzos?
 
I'm pretty sure opiates in some way affect the GABA receptors as benzos do so there would certainly be some kind of drug synergy... there are surely more examples...
 
No, they do not bind to kappa opioid receptor. Salvia (salvinorin) is the only common drug that binds to that receptor.
 
i know they dont bind to the kappa receptor, that is why i said GABA receptor, which is NOT the same thing as kappa receptor
and i wouldnt call salvia a "common" drug
 
It would be interesting to see some chemist post the list of opiates, in order of receptor-binding strength. That kind of matrix might be useful.
 
^I'm told in my Suboxone product propaganda that buprenorphine is 40-50x more potent (in "binding to receptor" terms) than morphine.

I wonder if this binding action has anything to do with half-life. If the half-life of bupe is 24 hours, then supposedly no other ¿¿¿¿ can knock it off the mu/kappa receptors in that period except as relative to the number of bupe agonists that have "bound" thus far. Dunno if I'm making any sense at all, and I'm completely sober (well, except for 24 mg of bupe).
 
Pharmacokinetic data on opium alkaloids are not available

Pharmacokinetic data on opium alkaloids are not available; however, data are available on morphine, the major component of opium alkaloids.

Morphine acts as an agonist interacting with stereo-specific receptors in the brain and other tissues; the receptor sites are distributed throughout the CNS and are present in highest concentrations in the limbic system, thalamus, striatum, hypothalamus, midbrain and spinal cord. Morphine is well absorbed after subcutaneous and intramuscular administration. When therapeutic concentrations of morphine are present in plasma, approximately one-third of the drug is protein bound. Unbound morphine accumulates in parenchyma tissues (such as lung, liver, kidney and spleen) and skeletal muscle; however, 24 hours following the last dose, concentrations of the drug in these tissues are quite low.
specific CNS opioid receptors for endogenous compounds with opioid-like activity have been identified throughout the brain and spinal cord and play a role in the analgesic effects of this drug.

As far as Oxycodone goes, specific CNS opioid receptors for endogenous compounds with opioid-like activity have been identified throughout the brain and spinal cord and play a role in the analgesic effects of this drug.
 
krishnaya said:
I wonder if this binding action has anything to do with half-life. If the half-life of bupe is 24 hours, then supposedly no other ¿¿¿¿ can knock it off the mu/kappa receptors in that period except as relative to the number of bupe agonists that have "bound" thus far. Dunno if I'm making any sense at all, and I'm completely sober (well, except for 24 mg of bupe).
Click to expand...

I could be wrong but I don't believe the half-life has anything to do with the binding action.
 
Your question is not techinical nor biochemical. You should do some more reading before posting dumb questions like this.....
 
what you're really saying

Any question about brain chemistry is, by nature, biochemical. Questions about opiate receptor activity sound technical to me and 99% of the world's population.

Negrogesic, sounds like you have a personal problem with krishnaya since your accusation is without grounds. I didn't think ad hominem attacks were permissible in this forum. Your "posting dumb questions like this".... was silly. It was a fine question. You apparently don't know the answer to it, do you?
 
krishnaya said:
It would be interesting to see some chemist post the list of opiates, in order of receptor-binding strength*.
Click to expand...

*receptor affinity.
i'm sure there's a list somewhere if you searched the right places...

opiate antagonists have higher receptor affinities than opioids, which is how they are able to cancel out the effects of opioids, by knocking them out of there and keeping the receptor filled until it [the antagonist] is metabolised.

such a list wouldnt really tell you the actual potency in terms of euphoria,etc, it would just tell you which opioids a certain one could 'overpower'
 
So that would tell us whether it would increase our Oxy buzz by taking some morphine, or whether it would not do anything to our buzz.

Can 2 opiates (agonists) be binding at the same time? Complementing, as it were, each other?
 
You are saying I dont know the answer to this simple question? I have posted many times before regarding opiod pharmacology, and am extremely well read and experienced, i've even been accepted to a reputable school of pharmacology. The questions she asked could be answered by some simple research. I am a firm believer that the notion that "no question is stupid" is completely untrue.

And yes, I am annoyed by some of krishnaya's posts, the questions she asks could by a simple search. She doesnt even know about simple drug phamacology, yet asked to be a moderator! So yes, I dont take well to her posts.......
 
One good example why people have a bone to pick with her...

Posted by krishnaya
It takes about 1000 mg of codeine to get a good buzz. You're likely to reach toxic levels of acetaminophen from Tylenol-4 if you try to take that many (like 33 pills of 30 mg each). Instead, there are many recipes on the internet which describe how to titrate the APAP out and leave codeine only, which you can then drink. I'd suggest visiting http://www.erowid.org/pharms/codeine/codeine_faq.shtml for this info. Good luck, and have fun with the caffeine that can't be isolated along with it.

TheTruth brought this to BL's attention and I found it hilarious
1.) She suggests 1000mg of codeine to a non-tolerant user
2.) Then claims that the acetaminophen is the bigger problem
3.) Provides a legitamit link that contradicts all her advice
4.) Claims that the caffeine can't be isolated

And that is just ONE of her threads. Imagine if she was the moderator? Negrogesic is a very reputable member here (with the knowledge of a moderator) and I would take his advice over her "biochemical/technical" advice anyday.
 
negrogesic said:
I am a firm believer that the notion that "no question is stupid" is completely untrue.
Click to expand...
I am SO with you on that one.

That notion is part of why the quality of this forum has deteriorated so. We are WAY to easy on people. It seems we'd rather sacrifice the integrity of the forum content than hurt someones feelings8).

Some people are just STUPID. No one here can tell me they've never met a stupid person. And stupid people ask STUPID questions. It's not my fault, that's just the way it is. . .:)
 
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I also agree. I think the reason is that people are too lazy to research first and assume they can get an answer faster just by posting a question that's been covered in archives and accessible by search engine. Unfortunately I admit being guilty to that crime :( (one of my first posts asked if methanol could be substituted for naphta... I mean gee.. but then again that was my first post and I've learned quite a bit since). But as long as everything is kept peaceful and no flame wars erupt, blasting stupid questions does save lives, albeit stupid lives. Truth hurts.
 
K'dOUTinAZ said:
One good example why people have a bone to pick with her...

Posted by krishnaya
It takes about 1000 mg of codeine to get a good buzz. You're likely to reach toxic levels of acetaminophen from Tylenol-4 if you try to take that many (like 33 pills of 30 mg each). Instead, there are many recipes on the internet which describe how to titrate the APAP out and leave codeine only, which you can then drink. I'd suggest visiting http://www.erowid.org/pharms/codeine/codeine_faq.shtml for this info. Good luck, and have fun with the caffeine that can't be isolated along with it.

TheTruth brought this to BL's attention and I found it hilarious
1.) She suggests 1000mg of codeine to a non-tolerant user
2.) Then claims that the acetaminophen is the bigger problem
3.) Provides a legitamit link that contradicts all her advice
4.) Claims that the caffeine can't be isolated

And that is just ONE of her threads. Imagine if she was the moderator? Negrogesic is a very reputable member here (with the knowledge of a moderator) and I would take his advice over her "biochemical/technical" advice anyday.
Click to expand...

She also takes 120mg of hydromorphone "in the morning to get amped for the day". And she shoots 2 grams of heroin a day, but still manages to get off on 80mg of oral oxy.
 
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