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  • BDD Moderators: Keif’ Richards

strange opiate reactions

W

wolverhamptonian

Bluelighter
Joined
Mar 22, 2010
Messages
222
Location
in the woods in the midlands
Could i please get some advice i usally take 6 dhc 30 mg 50 mg seroquel and 10 ml diazepam and 25 mg promethazine is opiate potenators. But when ive used up my script i resort to using over the counter nurofen pluss 12.8 ml codeine .MY Problem is my dad takes co codamol 30/500s and if i take just three of these on their own my mood elovates a lot more than using the dhc and potenators is it possible that some people respond better 2 codeine than dihydrocodeine in the recreational sense even though it is less potant? thanks in advance:(
 
I do yeah but ive heard that to much seroquel actually disrupts opiates recreational value? Actully i can think of nothing better than seroquel and dhc or co/codamol/30/500s. Its just knowing what what dose of seroquel potenates opiates and which dose of seroquel disrupts the opiate experience for the worse thats my problem i guess? :-0
 
is it possible that some people respond better 2 codeine than dihydrocodeine in the recreational sense even though it is less potant?
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Codeine is a prodrug converted to active components in the liver. One of them is morphine. If your body has an extra active enzyme then codeine can be much stronger to you (as a larger amount is converted to morphine) than the averages on which comparison charts are compiled.

It also could be that codeine has more of an itchy heated sensation and is therefore more notable and you perceive this as a high.

I don't think anyone is going to have a magic answer here for you unfortunately.
 
^ Morphine is actually a minor metabolite of codeine and not the metabolite responsible for the analgesia which codeine provides. Codeine analgesia is due to codeine-6-glucuronide, not morphine. It's not like how heroin relies solely on morphine for analgesia and all the other effects. 6MAM is a very minor metabolite that is also converted to morphine before binding to any opioid receptors. Morphine diacetate ("heroin") which is not only a morphine prodrug, unlike codeine, it is also an ester salt of morphine (similar to morphine sulfate, morphine hydrochloride, morphine dinicotinate [nicomorphine], and other salts).
 
kokaino said:
^ Morphine is actually a minor metabolite of codeine and not the metabolite responsible for the analgesia which codeine provides. Codeine analgesia is due to codeine-6-glucuronide, not morphine. It's not like how heroin relies solely on morphine for analgesia and all the other effects. 6MAM is a very minor metabolite that is also converted to morphine before binding to any opioid receptors. Morphine diacetate ("heroin") which is not only a morphine prodrug, unlike codeine, it is also an ester salt of morphine (similar to morphine sulfate, morphine hydrochloride, morphine dinicotinate [nicomorphine], and other salts).
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Yes I am aware that the c-6-g glucuronidation metabolite is theorized to provide the majority of codeine's painkilling properties in the majority of the population due to the very small amount that is methylated to morphine. However if someone has very active CYP2D6 such that say ~20% of codeine is metabolized to morphine as opposed to the usual ~5%, then I could imagine the morphine contributing to the strength.

Then again if codeine is converted to morphine and then straight through to m-3-g and m-6-g in a single pass of the liver (don't know about this one), then I'm not sure if it would be preferable to get small amounts of m-6-g versus larger amounts of c-6-g.
 
For sure the regular codeine wont last as long but should hit you a little bit harder and be a bit more euphoric. ymmv though.
 
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