leungkachong
Bluelighter
I still say that calling this hypothalamic is correct, but only the little picture. It does nothing to explain the sexual symptoms or the the muscle spasms... which ALL (including the thermoregulatory) can have responses mediated by the amygdala.
I believe that your amygdala underwent 'typical' fear-conditioning with the pharmacodynamic effect of the MDMA/meth as it's unconditined stimulus. Fear-conditioning doesn't mean you were scared, it means that the drugs were 'recognized' as an aversive stimulus, and activated the unlearned responses mediated by its innervation of the hypothalamus (including your medial/lateral preoptic nuclei - thermoreg and sweating), the reticular nucleus (for the myoclonic spasms), and the periaqueductal grey (for the sexual stuff). It takes only a single event (conceptually comparable to allergenic sensitization, but physiologically completely different).
The only areas which are activated by the amydala's response bear close relation to your symptoms. The fact that this response to drugs which you had previous exposure without any symptoms implies that this response was 'learned' (learned having no cognitive connotation) and not something due to some pre-existing condition.
I also believe that you are wasting your time trying to figure out the problem with the amount of information you have at hand. Your only way to get any relevant data is to precipitate an attack and get some fMRI data. Otherwise no doctor is going to commit to a diagnosis (and as a result, any treatment).
I believe that your amygdala underwent 'typical' fear-conditioning with the pharmacodynamic effect of the MDMA/meth as it's unconditined stimulus. Fear-conditioning doesn't mean you were scared, it means that the drugs were 'recognized' as an aversive stimulus, and activated the unlearned responses mediated by its innervation of the hypothalamus (including your medial/lateral preoptic nuclei - thermoreg and sweating), the reticular nucleus (for the myoclonic spasms), and the periaqueductal grey (for the sexual stuff). It takes only a single event (conceptually comparable to allergenic sensitization, but physiologically completely different).
The only areas which are activated by the amydala's response bear close relation to your symptoms. The fact that this response to drugs which you had previous exposure without any symptoms implies that this response was 'learned' (learned having no cognitive connotation) and not something due to some pre-existing condition.
I also believe that you are wasting your time trying to figure out the problem with the amount of information you have at hand. Your only way to get any relevant data is to precipitate an attack and get some fMRI data. Otherwise no doctor is going to commit to a diagnosis (and as a result, any treatment).


, with all the searching ive done i havent even come across anything that relevant! Sounds almost too good to be true!