I thought, though, that because i had a 9 and a 9 on the table and he only had the 2 10's on the table (which i could have claimed, too?) that i woulda won..
i had the 9's but both the 10s were on the table.. so surely i had a pair of Q's and 10's if the other card in our hands don't count..
So is it not true that because i had a pair of queens and 9s using the cards in my had i should have won even though his 2 pairs were 1 from his 2 cards and the other on the table?
Edit im not gambling, yet, Kenny I'm entering freeroll tournaments.
Ricko if the board was 10 10 q 9 x (x being a meningless card) and u had q9 and villain had kq he would win becsuse u play all 7 cards to make ur best 5 card hand, he has two pairs queens and tens with king kicker and u habe queens and tens with a 9 kicker , so villain wins pot.. you were on abput that right? Q9 is a pretty trash hand, unless ur playing it ip with no raisers.ect and.if its suited then that always helps
I'll fold almost anything at someone going all in on the blinds. No point playing against that when you can just fold for free. I'd probably only ever call it if it was fuck all to me chips wise, or if it was a real life game against people I know and I could tell the cunt was at it.
Nice, i just got final table in the hot $44 for 1.8k 11k up top tonight mp goes all in i snap with aj he turns over a9 with A clubs flop kxj two clubs turn x clubs river j clubs giving guy nut flush, i had him dominated by 75% annd drawing very thin on flop :-(
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