heyian2222
Bluelighter
So i was reading up on methadone and i came upon an article that said that in the US and some European countries the methadone we use is less effective as used in Australia, UK and other countries. (Don't Quote Exactly) because the methadone they make hits the U1 receptors much more effectively. and the US (Mainly) uses methadone that doesn't hit it as effectively and hits another receptor partially hence partial agonist antagonist. (Not Suboxone) Now methadone is methadone i know that but the article said (And this is really dumb down cause i couldn't find it again so i could be wrong on some of my info) the way that we make it in the US is different than the way they make it in in then UK. I used those cause there too major countries. Try reading wikipedia it says it somewhere in there i believe i just don't want to waste an hour trying to find a needle in a hay stack. Anyone know what im trying to say i know it sounds stupid but if you saw the article then you would understand completely. BTW wikipedia may not be true due to that it is free to write in so that is why i am writing this. i think it would be a cool challenge for anyone to try and find and understand the pharmacology behind these two different so called "forms" of methadone.
