okay using a globarph calc. is says that 40 mg hydrocodone is equal to 10 mg of hydromorphone-ORALLY.. so, oral ba or hydmor is 10% so that means really 1 mg of hydromorphone is equal to 40 mg hydrocdone at 100 % ba? so does that mean by insufflation(50percent) BA 2 mg of hydromorphone is equal to 40 mg hydrocodone? I don't think so, that doesn't sound right. my math skills are not all that up to snuff. so with Insufflation BA how many mg of hydromorphone is REALLY equal to about 40 mg hydrocodone?.. I'm lost here LOL

