Cowboy Mac
Bluelighter
- Joined
- Jun 4, 2000
- Messages
- 3,084
bare with me with this short background info. i am on a break from mdma and havnt had it for approx. six months as the last 5 or so experiences were continually degrading - including the loss of love (which what made mdma unique to me in the first place) and an increase of an amphetamine feel. my comedowns were never very bad, i did take a few days to recover fully, but towards the end i never got too high i never had to deal with anything too bad, and i always post-loaded with 5htp.
i feel my tolerance has been due to the following reasons: the only pills i have had over the last two and half years have been those referred to as the 'x scores' (high content mdma) and during each session never having more 2, very rarely having 3. the frequency probably was around once a fortnight, for bit over a year. i first used mdma late 1999.
i know each person is different, (levels of CYP2D6 for example), however a close friend has been through almost the same situation and he still gets loved up, whereas i do not. he thinks the lack of effect is accountable psychologically, whereas i believe it is due to physical neurological changes.
my question is this: do you think mdma does not affect me as much (loss of love) due to physical neurological changes cause by sustained use, or do you think it is psychological and mdma should still work under the correct set and setting if i am willing?
[ 17 February 2003: Message edited by: Cowboy Mac ]
i feel my tolerance has been due to the following reasons: the only pills i have had over the last two and half years have been those referred to as the 'x scores' (high content mdma) and during each session never having more 2, very rarely having 3. the frequency probably was around once a fortnight, for bit over a year. i first used mdma late 1999.
i know each person is different, (levels of CYP2D6 for example), however a close friend has been through almost the same situation and he still gets loved up, whereas i do not. he thinks the lack of effect is accountable psychologically, whereas i believe it is due to physical neurological changes.
my question is this: do you think mdma does not affect me as much (loss of love) due to physical neurological changes cause by sustained use, or do you think it is psychological and mdma should still work under the correct set and setting if i am willing?
[ 17 February 2003: Message edited by: Cowboy Mac ]