piller97
Bluelighter
Hello everyone, i have a theory about Adderall tolerance and I'm looking for input.
(i guess in theory this can apply to any drug, but I'm using Adderall)
It is my understanding that the general consensus on the development of Adderall tolerance is that after someone has ingested Adderall and its effects have begun taking place in the brain, the brain senses that something isn't normal and it adjusts itself(dopamine receptor down regulation, ect. ect.) to return itself to normal. Therefor resulting in an apparent desensitization and requiring larger doses to receive similar effects.
Considering this, would it not make sense that if someone was to use a substance with effects opposite to those of Adderall, that the brain would adjust itself once again, undoing the changes the brain made while it was on Adderall?
Of course the second substance couldn't just be any random depressant, it would have to be a substance that effects the same parts of the brain as Adderall or else the brain's resulting compensation would effect areas unrelated to Adderall and would have no effect on the first adjustments.
(or am i wrong?)
Though i haven't put much work into this,
I'd be really interested in hearing other peoples opinions on this as it seems to make some amount of sense.
I posted this to OD but I'm not to sure that it shouldn't be in Neuroscience and Pharmacology(if this is the case, id appreciate if a mod could move it)
(i guess in theory this can apply to any drug, but I'm using Adderall)
It is my understanding that the general consensus on the development of Adderall tolerance is that after someone has ingested Adderall and its effects have begun taking place in the brain, the brain senses that something isn't normal and it adjusts itself(dopamine receptor down regulation, ect. ect.) to return itself to normal. Therefor resulting in an apparent desensitization and requiring larger doses to receive similar effects.
Considering this, would it not make sense that if someone was to use a substance with effects opposite to those of Adderall, that the brain would adjust itself once again, undoing the changes the brain made while it was on Adderall?
Of course the second substance couldn't just be any random depressant, it would have to be a substance that effects the same parts of the brain as Adderall or else the brain's resulting compensation would effect areas unrelated to Adderall and would have no effect on the first adjustments.
(or am i wrong?)
Though i haven't put much work into this,
I'd be really interested in hearing other peoples opinions on this as it seems to make some amount of sense.
I posted this to OD but I'm not to sure that it shouldn't be in Neuroscience and Pharmacology(if this is the case, id appreciate if a mod could move it)