Opioids Actavis roxi DROWSINESS

[arthunter888]

I've been using oxy IR (30s) for quite a while, recreationally. I consistently alternate between oral, nasal, and rectal ROAs. I used to get the Mallinckrodt brand ("M, 30"), but I just recently can now only get the Actavis brand ("A | 215").

I've noticed very apparently that the Actavis brand adds a moderate-strong feeling of drowsiness to the oxy high. It's NOT as if they feel more potent, and therefore produce a stronger nod. This is NOT a noddy effect, it's actual tiredness: it makes me want to shut my eyes and sleep. It's more "stony."

Now, some people are going to assume the placebo effect and/or perceptual bias. I can rule both of these out because:

• 
  I had no pre-conception of different brands having different effects before perceiving this difference; I used to believe that all oxy IR pills have exactly the same effect.

• 
  Just in case there may have been a subconscious pre-conception, I performed a 'blind' bio-assay, if you will, with identical dosing and all 3 ROAs, which further confirmed the drowsiness of Actavis roxis.

In conclusion, I have experienced first-hand, and am convinced that [A] roxis feel drowsy and 'stony'/dirty compared to [M]. Likewise, [M] roxis feel lucid, and clean compared to [A] roxis. To draw a cannabis analogy,

[M] = a 'Sativa' high

[A] = an 'Indica' high.

There have been many others in various forums that have perceived this same difference in effects. My question is, why is this the case? I know that they have different inactive chemicals, but inactive chemicals are supposed to be... inactive. Is it possible that certain [A] inactives combine with the oxy such to create the drowsy effect? Or is it more likely that [A] is engaging in a conspiracy: by adding other drug(s) in addition to oxy to deliberately cause drowsiness (in an attempt to compete with [M] by making the [A] roxis seem more potent)?

Let the opinions/speculations/facts flow in people.... thanks

 

[Cane2theLeft]

What do you expect to come from this exactly? Do you think some inactive ingredient is magically active for you and changes the nature of the effects substantially? All we can do is speculate. Where's the harm reduction value?

I can't imagine a major pharmaceutical company conspiring in such a manner - these drugs are cheap to produce and the inevitable lawsuit if this was the case would not be cheap. If you genuinely think this is possible, send a sample to a lab for analysis.

 

[laCster]

no. the V's, M's, A215's, ect... they are all the same. i think you are thinking way too much into this; oxycodone is oxycodone...

 

[TheLostBoys]

no. the V's, M's, A215's, ect... they are all the same. i think you are thinking way too much into this; oxycodone is oxycodone...

I disagree......all oxycodones do not act the same way. Different brands act differently, jmo & observation as well. Also, I have several friends that dabble in the oxy & they all have the same feelings as well.

 

[sekio]

It's entirely psychological. The FDA won't let drug companies sell "generic" formulations that don't measure up to the "real" ones. That means they don't switch the dose, they don't add other actives, and moreover the AUC should be the same as the AUC from a comparable dose of "real" meds. If there was e.g. a company selling hydrocodone as oxycodone pills the FDA would smack them so hard their company would fall over.

Long story short, it's a placebo effect. I'm a skeptical man. Unless you do a double blind trial (very hard with imprinted pills) you have no right whatsoever to say "oh I have ruled out placebo as a cause for this" because you haven't.

BUT brand discussion of this sort isn't allowed. So this gets closed.