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Bupe Suboxone/Buprenorphine FAQ and Megathread v.1; 2007 - 2010

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But I do still have a lingering question: What about precipitated WDs? Aren't those based on the fact that adminstering suboxone or buprenorphine to someone high on heroin causes the bupe to kick off the heroin from the mu receptors and replace it with bupe? And because the dose of bupe given USUALLY is less potent than the dose of heroin sitting on the receptors, the person goes into precipitated WDs. Using that logic, if someone is ODing on heroin, wouldn't adminstering a moderate does of buperenorphine with or without naloxone cause the heroin to be kicked off the receptors to be replaced by the bupe, and thus causing the person to go into precipitated WDs just like a normal person is just high instead of ODing?

Sorry for all these questions, but I've always wondered this and its kind of fascinating to me since I am curious about pharmacology. Thanks for any info.

It could work that way, except when the person goes into precipitated WD's they'll be puking a lot, similar to an OD situation.

You want the individual to not be puking their guts up. If they have heavy respiratory depression, and continue to vomit, they have a chance of asphyxiating on their own vomit.

For this reason, dosing someone who is ODing with buprenorphine is not the safest move.

It could be used to revive them, but it could also be what kills them at the same time.

It's a lot safer to get a vial of naloxone and a pack of needles.
 
If they have heavy respiratory depression, and continue to vomit, they have a chance of asphyxiating on their own vomit.


Yeah it could happen, but I don't think it would it most cases....
And if this really works, it would be a good option especially for people who don't have experience with IV'ing
 
Yeah it could happen, but I don't think it would it most cases....
And if this really works, it would be a good option especially for people who don't have experience with IV'ing

It would be a good option if you had no way of getting medical attention...and were unable to get to a hospital in time.

However it's not the best option. You can read Tchort's post.

You should not rely on buprenorphine as a treatment for an opiate OD. If you were in the woods and were many hours away from a hospital, and had no phone, etc etc, then it's a possibility.

I would advise against this though, and would advise you to go to a SEP and get a vial of naloxone. It's a much safer idea.
 
lol this thread feels all too much like the situation of waiting to use that i face quite often. i've been using 2mg suboxone daily the past week and a half. i'm working my way towards 48 hours off the shit. I'm going to wait till 72 hours at least to use my opies. i got an OC 80 and .4g worth of H). Hope i'll be able to feel it.
 
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lol this thread feels all too much like the situation of waiting to use that i face quite often. i've been using 2mg suboxone daily the past week and a half. i'm working my way towards 48 hours off the shit. I'm going to wait till 72 hours at least to use my opies. i got an OC 80 and .4g worth of H. Hope i'll be able to feel it.

Edit out the prices. Put your prices in the price thread. That's the only place it belongs.

edit

thanks
 
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The vial of naloxone has .4mg/ml (I have one) and they are meant to be used IV, IM, or SC. Considering the fact that they make nasal naloxone sprays for overdose victims leads me to believe that if your friend did a shot and isnt breathing, having a solution of suboxone to shoot up their nose should be a sufficient dose if you do it right and if they are able to be brought back.

From the Naloxone vial fold out:
The usual initial dose is .01mg/kg

It also says to start with .4mg-2mg (iv, im, sc) and if the patient is unresponsive after 10mg to consider opiod toxicity. It also mentions to repeat every 2-3 minutes if the patient doesn't get better
IMO the starting range is very wide (for a wide variety of addicts i suppose).

I think you can save someone's life with intranasal suboxone in emergency situations, given you have the tools to do so (I would use my vial first though)
 
and by the way i'm a girl, marti is my dogs name
Even though you're female, don't expect anyone to cut you a break in this forum. I should know this because I'm female too.

Capt. Heroin is right about using Bupe in an OD. Sometimes people need several shots of Narcan to stay out of respiratory depression when an OD occurs. Using a agonist/antagonist like Bupe, with naloxone that is not really all that active would not be an ideal situation by any stretch of the imagination.
 
I have a Q about Bupe.

Given the difference in bioavailablity (33% Sublingual to 100% I.V) - if you are injecting 2mg Subutex a day, do you have the same habit of someone who is putting around 6mg under their tounge?
 
But I do still have a lingering question: What about precipitated WDs? Aren't those based on the fact that adminstering suboxone or buprenorphine to someone high on heroin causes the bupe to kick off the heroin from the mu receptors and replace it with bupe? And because the dose of bupe given USUALLY is less potent than the dose of heroin sitting on the receptors, the person goes into precipitated WDs. Using that logic, if someone is ODing on heroin, wouldn't adminstering a moderate does of buperenorphine with or without naloxone cause the heroin to be kicked off the receptors to be replaced by the bupe, and thus causing the person to go into precipitated WDs just like a normal person is just high instead of ODing?

Sorry for all these questions, but I've always wondered this and its kind of fascinating to me since I am curious about pharmacology. Thanks for any info.

Precipitated withdrawal works like this, in this situation. You are a Heroin addict. You use Heroin two or three times a day. You used Heroin this morning, and then maybe 6 hours later, you get a sniffle and think you're getting sick, so you put a Subutex/Suboxone under your tongue. When the Buprenorphine is absorbed and gets into the bloodstream, it displaces the Heroin that was attached to the mu receptors- meaning, the Buprenorphine has a higher affinity (it has stronger means for bonding :)). But, Buprenorphine, despite having higher affinity for these receptors, is a partial agonist.

Heroin is a stronger agonist than Buprenorphine, but has a weaker affinity than Buprenorphine does. Think of it like watching porn. Who do you think should be in a porn movie; the guy with the really big muscles and small penis, or the guy whose really scrawny with a big penis? Works like that.

So, the mu receptors are at one moment being agonized heavily (deeply and repeatedly) by Heroin, all of a sudden Buprenorphine scares him off with his bigger affinity, but the receptors aren't getting agonized as deeply as they were a moment ago.

Precipitated withdrawal is the result of this competition and change; after awhile the body regains stasis and the precipitated withdrawals go away (the Heroin will remain in your system even though it has been outcompeted for the mu receptors; but it won't re-bind because Buprenorphine will last longer than the Heroin left in your body). Also, while in PW, the Buprenorphine is bound to those mu receptors. Even though you are in withdrawal, the Buprenorphine is still in your system doing its job- meaning, you can't inject Heroin or another full agonist and expect relief: as the Bupe will simply continue to outcompete it/them.

Hope that helps.

Given the difference in bioavailablity (33% Sublingual to 100% I.V) - if you are injecting 2mg Subutex a day, do you have the same habit of someone who is putting around 6mg under their tounge?

Nope, onset and duration are very different.

Similar to the 'Is taking 300mg Codeine the same as taking 30mg Morphine?'

The answer is kinda but no, no it isn't.
 
I have a Q about Bupe.

Given the difference in bioavailablity (33% Sublingual to 100% I.V) - if you are injecting 2mg Subutex a day, do you have the same habit of someone who is putting around 6mg under their tounge?

It's hard to draw a comparison, since most sublingual users administer once per day and most IV users administer 3 to 4 times a day.

How much buprenorphine do you use at a time? Do you break it up into 0.5mg doses and use it 4 times a day? Do you break it into 1mg doses and use it 2 times a day?


I appreciate it. The mods are sticklers about the price thread.
 
I currently shoot 1.2mg in the morning, and then 0.4mg in the evening.

Though as I'm on a reduction - this figure is changing weekly.


(I just used the 2mg as an example as it was an easy figure!)
 
Interesting.

I find that whether I use 1mg IV or 0.5mg IV, I get about the same effect for around the same duration...except I tend to get a better "high" with the 0.5mg.

Have you tried only using 0.4mg or 0.5mg in the morning? Did it not work as well as 1.2mg?
 
Nah - I have tried such a small morning dose, but I find that it doesn't satisfy me properly. It makes me feel normal - but only just.

Kind of like how a cotton-shot would feel first thing in the morning when you where using.

I find it very hard to take my mind off it, and get to work.

1mg+ and I'm just fine.

I'm hoping that as I *gradually* reduce dose, this will fade.
 
Nah - I have tried such a small morning dose, but I find that it doesn't satisfy me properly. It makes me feel normal - but only just.

Kind of like how a cotton-shot would feel first thing in the morning when you where using.

I find it very hard to take my mind off it, and get to work.

1mg+ and I'm just fine.

I'm hoping that as I *gradually* reduce dose, this will fade.

It definitely should. I used to only feel slightly better from 1mg, and as time went on I felt the dose more, so I cut back to 0.5mg. When I did this, I found that it delivers a better high at the lower dose.

Now, I find I get pretty high from 0.5mg, so I'm about to taper down to 0.3mg per dose.
 
No - I've never gotten a proper "high" from Subutex (probably for the best!)

I mean, sure, I have felt reeeal good going from sick to not sick - but definitely not high.

If anything, I think by IV'ing my Subutex it has helped with the mental cravings - though I 'spose many would argue it has just facilitated a needle fixation.


When I do slip-up, it blows me away just how NOT HIGH subutex gets me - a single £10 bag blows my fucking brains out.
 
^^^ I thought that I was the only one able to get high off a reasonable $ amount of dope while on sub maintenance!

speaking of monetary units - let me jokingly scold you for naming prices so as to deny the other guy(s) the satisfaction of self-righteously devoting 3 paragraphs to it
 
No - I've never gotten a proper "high" from Subutex (probably for the best!)

I mean, sure, I have felt reeeal good going from sick to not sick - but definitely not high.
I know what you mean here. However, I guess my opiate tolerance has dropped down to being low enough (since I haven't used heroin for 8 months now).

If anything, I think by IV'ing my Subutex it has helped with the mental cravings - though I 'spose many would argue it has just facilitated a needle fixation.
I think the idea of a "needle fixation" really only applies to people who only like using drugs with a needle, or feel compulsion towards using a needle.

I think it helps deal with cravings better, I am very content with staying on buprenorphine and not using heroin again.

When I do slip-up, it blows me away just how NOT HIGH subutex gets me - a single £10 bag blows my fucking brains out.
I don't like using heroin anymore because it fucks with my opiate tolerance too hard, and I don't like not being able to feel small amounts of buprenorphine.

I prefer taking 0.5mg buprenorphine, because it's helping my opiate receptors become more sensitive.

^^^ I thought that I was the only one able to get high off a reasonable $ amount of dope while on sub maintenance!

speaking of monetary units - let me jokingly scold you for naming prices so as to deny the other guy(s) the satisfaction of self-righteously devoting 3 paragraphs to it

I think saying "a ten bag" doesn't really state a price, because it isn't equating that said price to an amount (ie 0.1g) whereas saying "ten for 0.1g" (for example) would be naming a price.

I might be wrong here...but the mods will probably come in here and say how wrong it is to even connect a monetary unit with a number outside of the price thread...
 
uh i thought i saw me one o them pound signs (not sure where it is on the keyboard) - and i guess i was wrong about the # of paragraphs as well
 
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