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Pharmacology Tilidine - Pharmacology and chemistry

This thread contains discussion about a Pharmacology-related topic
In the book by Casey/parfait it was stated that the double bond is absolutely necessary for tilidines activity.

That is most likely where I read it. For a time I did wonder if the C=C bond with it's pi-bonding was part of the pharmacophore which is why I was pleased to find that later work in which a cyclopentane replaces the cyclohexene and from every study I've seen, the two compounds are equipotent. I know, it's a petty detail but I was just pleased to remove all doubt.
 
@izo
I assume you have tried Tilidine since you are german, so here is a question I always wanted to ask but never had the opportunity to: is there any significant difference in the quality of the high between the tabs and the oral solution? I always found the oral solution to be a tad more euphoric but that could be placebo.

Also, do you have any info on the BA of non-oral ROAs, specifically IV? I'm asking because the oral solution could technically be IVed but I haven't found any info on the BA. I assume it must be extremely low though, because I haven't seen, heard or read of anybody who ever IVed Tilis lol.
 
I assume you have tried Tilidine since you are german, so here is a question I always wanted to ask but never had the opportunity to: is there any significant difference in the quality of the high between the tabs and the oral solution? I always found the oral solution to be a tad more euphoric but that could be placebo.

Also, do you have any info on the BA of non-oral ROAs, specifically IV? I'm asking because the oral solution could technically be IVed but I haven't found any info on the BA. I assume it must be extremely low though, because I haven't seen, heard or read of anybody who ever IVed Tilis lol.

ive had tilidine once around 2005, so it was a long time ago. it was in solution and i always thought of tilidine as a more lighter version of methadone which felt quite equal for for exept for stronger binding.
iv consumption of tilidine would be senseless i think as it has to be converted to nortilidine which is the active principle and this has to happen in the liver. what always puzzled me was valeron n to which naloxone was added to prevent iv consumption but this doesnt make sense as it isnt active iv.
 
ive had tilidine once around 2005, so it was a long time ago. it was in solution and i always thought of tilidine as a more lighter version of methadone which felt quite equal for for exept for stronger binding.
iv consumption of tilidine would be senseless i think as it has to be converted to nortilidine which is the active principle and this has to happen in the liver. what always puzzled me was valeron n to which naloxone was added to prevent iv consumption but this doesnt make sense as it isnt active iv.
Oh right, Tilidine is a PRODRUG. Stupid me forgot my own info I wrote in the thread LOL 🤣

Thanks anyway 😁
 
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