but MDMA releases serotonin, which agonises the 5HT2A receptor. both MDMA and 2C-B cause more action on the 5HT2A receptors, which could lead to downregulation and therefore cross-tolerance.
because serotonin is made to agonise serotonin receptors?I am defintely no chemist (as is probably becoming obvious) but why would serotonin agonise the receptor?
because serotonin is made to agonise serotonin receptors?
As I understand it, these two statements are essentially equivalent.Well, serotonin isn't made to agonise receptors; its 'made' to enable transmission over certain synapses.
Because serotonin fully agonises 5HT receptors in the 'expected' way, in the 'expected' amounts (i.e. what the 5HT receptors are evolved to deal with), whereas psychedelics produce partial agonism at 5HT receptors, perhaps in unexpected amounts or in unexpected areas of the brain, thus producing all sorts of weird subjective effects.If serotonin agonised 5HT receptors, why for are we not hallucinating right now?
yes, and this transmission in serotonergic synapses is made by releasing serotonin from the presynaptic part, which goes over to the postsynaptic part and agonises the serotonin receptors there.Well, serotonin isn't made to agonise receptors; its 'made' to enable transmission over certain synapses.
I'm not really certain about that myself, but it is probably due to the mechanisms invert has already speculated about: maybe it is because classical psychedelics are specific for the 2A subtype of serotonin receptors, and maybe they are much stronger agonists there than serotonin itself. I don't think that they agonise receptors in a different way than serotonin like uniter writes, but I'm not sure about that either; maybe someone with deeper understanding can enlighten us.If serotonin agonised 5HT receptors, why for are we not hallucinating right now?
As I understand it, these two statements are essentially equivalent.
I'm not really certain about that myself, but it is probably due to the mechanisms invert has already speculated about: maybe it is because classical psychedelics are specific for the 2A subtype of serotonin receptors, and maybe they are much stronger agonists there than serotonin itself. I don't think that they agonise receptors in a different way than serotonin like uniter writes, but I'm not sure about that either; maybe someone with deeper understanding can enlighten us.
Well, serotonin isn't made to agonise receptors; its 'made' to enable transmission over certain synapses. If serotonin agonised 5HT receptors, why for are we not hallucinating right now?