I was thinking about one of my previous posts, in which we discussed the binding affinity of fentanyl vs. buprenorphine, and it got me thinking...
If one were to ingest heroin cut with fentanyl, would ONLY the fentanyl bind to one's receptors?
And more importantly, if one ingested fentanyl (technically heroin cut with fentanyl), and then a few hours later ingested CLEAN heroin (just diacetlymorphine with an inert cut, no fentanyl), would one get high from the "Clean Heroin?"
Or would the Fentanyl from prior be so tightly bound to the receptors, that it would prevent the actual heroin from latching on / getting one high?!
Hmmm....
If one were to ingest heroin cut with fentanyl, would ONLY the fentanyl bind to one's receptors?
And more importantly, if one ingested fentanyl (technically heroin cut with fentanyl), and then a few hours later ingested CLEAN heroin (just diacetlymorphine with an inert cut, no fentanyl), would one get high from the "Clean Heroin?"
Or would the Fentanyl from prior be so tightly bound to the receptors, that it would prevent the actual heroin from latching on / getting one high?!
Hmmm....