This is predominantly a chemistry question, but I don't know any basic chemistry so it doesn't at all merit ADD. Apologies if this has been asked before, but I couldn't find an answer.
I recall Shulgin mentioning that he didn't expect methylating MDA to have any good effect whatsoever, until it was recommended he try it. So my questions are:
1. Why would you generally not expect methylating such a compound to change the effects, is this just experience with other compounds, or is there a fundamental chemical reason why this generally doesn't work with some compounds?
2. Do we know what is special about MDMA that causes such a profound change from the (admittedly pretty nice) parent compound, and can this be explained in simple terms regarding the methylation?
I was mostly just wondering this having done some of that shifty serotoni nonsense and noted a significant seratonogenic-style drug feeling which I wasn't at all expecting from an alleged aminorex analogue. But that's unrelated to the questions!
Thanks
I recall Shulgin mentioning that he didn't expect methylating MDA to have any good effect whatsoever, until it was recommended he try it. So my questions are:
1. Why would you generally not expect methylating such a compound to change the effects, is this just experience with other compounds, or is there a fundamental chemical reason why this generally doesn't work with some compounds?
2. Do we know what is special about MDMA that causes such a profound change from the (admittedly pretty nice) parent compound, and can this be explained in simple terms regarding the methylation?
I was mostly just wondering this having done some of that shifty serotoni nonsense and noted a significant seratonogenic-style drug feeling which I wasn't at all expecting from an alleged aminorex analogue. But that's unrelated to the questions!
Thanks
