Opioids Why do Morphine pills even exist if the B.A is so low ?

[EEhouseEE]

OK so ive been reading alot about morphine and from what everyone says its the worst drug to do orally because only 30% reaches in the bloodstream.
If Morphine B.A is so damn low why do they even make pills for it, especially low doses such as 15 mg ?? So taking sa 15mg pill orally would be acctually taking only about 5mg ? not even a baby could feel that dose lol..i dont get it.

 

[AlphaMethylPhenyl]

morphine is the main pharmaceutical constituent of opium, and can be cheaply extracted from it

 

[Supeudol]

Yeah Its retarded when pharm companies make some opiates with such low ORAL B/A that why do they even exist? For people that are used to be opiates anyways, they barely do a thing. For example pills like: morphine sulphate. Like EEhouseEE said.

I don't understand either. The only purpose they can help serve is to get off opiates, and good for tapering purposes to get people that WANT to get off opiates. Thats the only therapeutic/medical reason that morphine pills exist that I can see for.

EDIT: Spelling

 

[Jktm]

Morphine Sulfate is great for pain, BA really has nothing to do with it. That's just how much of the drug makes it to your bloodstream. Doesn't have anything to do with it's actual effects on you.

I can't remember exactly but they use Seroquel which (IIFC) has an oral BA of like 6% and gabapentin which doesn't have a very high BA either...much lower than the ~30% you get from morphine.

Opana's oral bio is like 10%, but until they started making them rape the GI tracts of CPP's they were a great medication.

 

[Swimmingdancer]

Morphine has been around since 50 years before the hypodermic needle was even invented. Since it is the oldest isolated opioid, it is the most widely studied, used and understood, and is still regarded as the "gold standard" or benchmark of opioid analgesics. An oral BA of 20%-45% certainly does NOT make it "pointless". One just has to take more of it than they would by other ROAs. Oral morphine is used for a number of different reasons, for example to avoid injections or make self-dosing easier, for people who are opioid naive, for people who can't take it by other ROAs, for people who don't need a strong opioid and therefore a lot of it, to reduce the potential for addiction, to make it last longer, etc, etc. There are also oral extended-release forms, which you wouldn't be able to do with an injection (unless you are on a constant slow drip). When people have a take-home prescription of morphine it makes more sense to give it orally, as self-injection is an unnecessary risk when you could just take a higher oral dose instead. But it is true that (nowadays) it is more often given as an (IV, IM or SC) injection in a medical setting.

There are plenty of drugs with low oral bioavailabilities, many much lower than morphine's. That doesn't make them useless.

 

[EEhouseEE]

Morphine Sulfate is great for pain, BA really has nothing to do with it. That's just how much of the drug makes it to your bloodstream. Doesn't have anything to do with it's actual effects on you.

I can't remember exactly but they use Seroquel which (IIFC) has an oral BA of like 6% and gabapentin which doesn't have a very high BA either...much lower than the ~30% you get from morphine.

Opana's oral bio is like 10%, but until they started making them rape the GI tracts of CPP's they were a great medication.

Does anyone else agree with what he said ^^. That the morphine dosent have to enter into the blood stream to produces the effects ( pain + recreation effects).
So you are pretty much saying the B.A has no relation to the effects a drug produces lol ??

 

[ShaunG]

Malli SR M15s suck...i just bought a bunch and found no recreational value at all thus far. I did a bunch too different ways...maybe I just need to do more. There might just be too much filler in them even once released over 12 hours in water. 60-80mg of oxy would give me a decent buzz for a comparison.

 

[Znegative]

30% really isn't all that low if you think of it. Anyone who's ever taken suboxone, a sublingually administered drug with a BA of 30%, would tell you that they definately still feel their medication. Besides, even if the equivalent parental dose was five mg, it would still have an effect, and therefore, a point (plus, you have to also think about duration, oral administration lasts longer than intravenous).

I really don't get why oral morphine gets so much shit.. I mean, oral heroin, now that would be outrageous.

 

[sekio]

given that codeine is widely accepted as 10% the strength of morphine, even oral morphine is 2-3x stronger milligram-for-milligram despite the fact that its not all absorbed...

 

[Jktm]

Does anyone else agree with what he said ^^. That the morphine dosent have to enter into the blood stream to produces the effects ( pain + recreation effects).
So you are pretty much saying the B.A has no relation to the effects a drug produces lol ??

What I was getting at is that dose lost by RoA can be made up for. The effect of the drug itself isn't THAT much different per RoA when it comes to THERAPEUTIC EFFECT. That isn't to say that smoking ice is the same recreationally as snorting ice. Don't be a smart ass trying to make your point appear valid. It shows weakness.

 

[tentram]

Morphine has been around since 50 years before the hypodermic needle was even invented. Since it is the oldest isolated opioid, it is the most widely studied, used and understood, and is still regarded as the "gold standard" or benchmark of opioid analgesics. An oral BA of 20%-45% certainly does NOT make it "pointless". One just has to take more of it than they would by other ROAs. Oral morphine is used for a number of different reasons, for example to avoid injections or make self-dosing easier, for people who are opioid naive, for people who can't take it by other ROAs, for people who don't need a strong opioid and therefore a lot of it, to reduce the potential for addiction, to make it last longer, etc, etc. There are also oral extended-release forms, which you wouldn't be able to do with an injection (unless you are on a constant slow drip). When people have a take-home prescription of morphine it makes more sense to give it orally, as self-injection is an unnecessary risk when you could just take a higher oral dose instead. But it is true that (nowadays) it is more often given as an (IV, IM or SC) injection in a medical setting.

There are plenty of drugs with low oral bioavailabilities, many much lower than morphine's. That doesn't make them useless.

mostly this.

OP, i think you're thinking too much in terms of a recreational standpoint. just because a drug has a low oral BA does not = shitty analgesic qualities. dosing adjustment along with breakthrough meds is one solution.

i can pick and choose any opioid for my pain management regime and stick with morphine for it's fantastic pain killing properties. it's nice to get down and high on at times as well, though, there are "safer" and easier to abuse and more sought after preps such as oxycodone for instance, but morphine is a personal favourite of mine.

 

[knightworrier]

Id say if it works the B/A means FA. Too easy?

 

[tricomb]

Swimmingdancer basically nailed it.

Morphine has been around in its extracted form for over 200 years, and was consumed in it's raw form for thousands and thousands of years BCE.

A low oral BA does not make morphine useless... I would think this is obvious due to how many people rely on it every day for relief from severe pain, acute and chronic. Plenty of drugs have low oral bioavailabilities... That does not make them useless. Other drugs with low oral BAs include hydromorphone, oxymorphone, methylphenidate, etc.

There are so many more factors involved in a drugs efficacy than bioavailability alone.

Please stop making so many threads. Pretty much every one you've made so far has been covered extensively and could be answered using the forum search engine.