stratocaster7855
Greenlighter
- Joined
- Nov 27, 2012
- Messages
- 1
I am prescribed clonazepam, one milligram, twice daily. But I have had a nigh-absurd lack of efficacy. Background: SWIM abused benzos in the form of alprazolam off and on for quite a while. Never developed much tolerance nor had any withdrawal symptoms. Lately, with a legitimate prescription, however, I've experienced a disturbing lack of effect.
Starting with the alprazolam (also legitimately prescribed), about six months ago I began to feel no effects whatsoever the majority of times I dosed. I figured tolerance so I upped to six milligrams. Once every seven or eight doses, I would actually get the therapeutic benefits. I recently switched the clonazepam. When I initially dose, which given the fact that I'm a smoker (see reduced plasma levels of benzos in smokers due to aromatic hydrocarbons), I take around six milligrams, which gives me some relaxation and therapeutic "high." It fades very quickly, despite its long half-life.
Because of this I continue to dose, merely seeking the therapeutic benefits, but I can get up to thirty milligrams in a day and feel nothing aside from the initial, short-lived effects mentioned above. Given my scrip schedule, I only use once every two or three weeks (again in an effort to achieve the therapeutic benefits; I suffer from unbearable insomnia and fairly significant anxiety), so I figure tolerance, while a contributing factor, isn't the primary suspect here. Again, after the initial dose of six milligrams clonazepam, I feel nothing, even as high as thirty milligrams. As an aside, I'm aware of the danger of such high doses and always titrate. I even attempt to potentiate with cimetidine and limited quantities of alcohol.
Can anyone offer any explanation as to why this would be? It strikes me as absurd. [admin: when you place this post, would be you so kind as to e-mail me at this account's primary e-mail informing me where I can find the thread? A hyperlink would be above and beyond and greatly appreciated, as well as any suggestions as how to better my post.]
Thanks,
Strat
Starting with the alprazolam (also legitimately prescribed), about six months ago I began to feel no effects whatsoever the majority of times I dosed. I figured tolerance so I upped to six milligrams. Once every seven or eight doses, I would actually get the therapeutic benefits. I recently switched the clonazepam. When I initially dose, which given the fact that I'm a smoker (see reduced plasma levels of benzos in smokers due to aromatic hydrocarbons), I take around six milligrams, which gives me some relaxation and therapeutic "high." It fades very quickly, despite its long half-life.
Because of this I continue to dose, merely seeking the therapeutic benefits, but I can get up to thirty milligrams in a day and feel nothing aside from the initial, short-lived effects mentioned above. Given my scrip schedule, I only use once every two or three weeks (again in an effort to achieve the therapeutic benefits; I suffer from unbearable insomnia and fairly significant anxiety), so I figure tolerance, while a contributing factor, isn't the primary suspect here. Again, after the initial dose of six milligrams clonazepam, I feel nothing, even as high as thirty milligrams. As an aside, I'm aware of the danger of such high doses and always titrate. I even attempt to potentiate with cimetidine and limited quantities of alcohol.
Can anyone offer any explanation as to why this would be? It strikes me as absurd. [admin: when you place this post, would be you so kind as to e-mail me at this account's primary e-mail informing me where I can find the thread? A hyperlink would be above and beyond and greatly appreciated, as well as any suggestions as how to better my post.]
Thanks,
Strat
