Disclaimer: I'm only self-taught, to a meager extent, in the area of pharmaceuticals like pharmacokinetics, pharmacodynamics, or any other pharmaco-. Please feel free to poke holes in any theories, assumptions, or "proofs" that I may provide, take for granted, or posit. Please help me to understand how these all tie in in regards to the workings of Vyvanse.
According to Wikipedia (Lisdexamfetamine), only 28% of a Vyvanse dose is bioavailable via an oral route. Defining further, bioavailability is the amount of administered drug that reaches the circulatory system. Now because Vyvanse is a prodrug it "[has to be converted] into dextroamphetamine via enzymes in the red blood cells...."
Pulling again from the Vyvanse Wikipedia page, "...each milligram of lisdexamphetamine is equivalent to 0.2948 mg of dextroamphetamine base." So, if only 28% of a 40mg Vyvanse dose gets into my bloodstream (and requires conversion by RBC enzymes) then:
* I'm operating under the assumption that dextroamphetamine base is what is useable by my body; if we were talking about dextroamphetamine HCl I understand that the HCl is what keeps the molecule from breaking down prematurely.
- 28% of 40mg is 11.20mg dextroamphetamine base* that makes it into my bloodstream
- And 11.20mg multiplied by the 0.2948mg ratio is 3.3017mg
- Does this mean that only 3.30mg of active dextroamphetamine base is being converted and used in my blood stream?
- What happens to the other 72% of my Vyvanse dose?
- What happens to the other 28.8mg would-be dextroamphetamine base?
