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tolerance via antagonism

sackynut

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sorry if this is the wrong section or if this question has been answered/widley known.

I know that drugs in similar classes (phenythylamines, benzos opiods etc) exhibit cross tolerance. Some drugs are known to produce less tolerance with similar effects, and now even drugs that all but completely stop tolerance generation (like herkinorin)

Im curious as to the effects of receptor ANTagonists on tolerance. Do antagonists INCREASE tolerance?
As to say, would taking a CB1 antagonist all day for a week straight mean that when you took a CB1 agonist at the end of the week the effects would be diminished:
or...would the effects be intensified 7 fold? meaning do antagonists cause reverse tolerance to agonists?
or lastly, to antagonists not effect tolerance at all. thanks.

kind of a bit to chew up, im not the best with grammar.

Im mainly curious because for example if taking an 5-ht (i know thats a generalization) antagonist for a few days would bring your classic-hallucinogen tolerance down, or would it boost it up even more? or not effect it at all? you get my point! Thanks for all replies. Im fairly knowledgable on how things work in the brain and cells so dont go easy on me with the information! <3

p.s. i dont want to go around lowering my tolerance to drugs so i can get wasted, i really just love learning about who i am, and how i work inside from the macro level of the brain and muscles to the micro of the cells and synapses.
 
Very interesting question!

I think that we first need to distinguish between 'real' antagonists, i.e. compounds that simply block agonistic substances from acting at the receptor, but do not cause any intracellular response on their own, and inverse agonists, i.e. compounds that reverse the action of an agonist with concomitant triggering another signal cascade.
Please note in this context that more and more compounds, which were once thought to be antagonists are actually inverse agonists. Some estimations consider the neutral antagonists to be a relatively small group in contrary to the vast majority of antagonistic ligands being inverse agonists. The problem is that often the inverse way of activating the cell is not known yet (hence the still ongoing change in the classification).

Why is the above preface important to consider? I would think that (neutral) antagonists are much less likely to trigger tolerance, because the do not cause any intracellular reaction at all. Inverse agonists on the other do, and whatever their effect may, it is quite realistic to think that tolerance to their effect can developo, too. If this goes contrary to the tolerance of the regular ligand, or if it acts synergistically (as suggested by SlapdragonX for 5HT) must be checked case to case.

Some examples:

Pharmacol Biochem Behav 1995, 50(1), p.9:
Tolerance occurred to the sedative actions of the competitive NMDA antagonists, CGP39551 and CGP37849, as measured by a decrease in spontaneous locomotor activity after 1 wk or 2 wk of administration, resp., in studies using the TO strain of mice. Cross-tolerance was seen between these compds.​

Eur J Pharmacol 2007, 560(2-3), p.132:
Ultra-low doses of opioid receptor antagonists inhibit development of chronic spinal morphine tolerance. As this phenomenon mechanistically resembles acute tolerance, the present study examd. actions of opioid receptor antagonists on acute spinal morphine tolerance.​

Alimentary Pharmacology and Therapeutics 1990, 4(Suppl. 1), p.47:
Simultaneous 24-h intragastric and plasma gastrin concns. were measured in 36 healthy subjects, when receiving placebo (day 0) and on days 1 and 8 of dosing with either placebo (n = 8 ), or high-dose of H2-blocked with either ranitidine 300 mg q.d.s. (n = 8 ), ranitidine 1200 mg o.m. (n = 8 ) , or sufotidine 600 mg b.d. (n = 12). Triplicate placebo studies demonstrated good reproducibility for this technique, with no significant differences of acidity or plasma gastrin concn. between the studies. There was a decrease in the anti-secretory activity of all 3 high-does H2-antagonist regimens on day 8, when compared with that obsd. on day 1. This occurred in the presence of sustained or increasing hypergastrinemia. It is concluded that a degree of tolerance develops during continued H2-blockade, and that this could be due to increasing gastrin drive to the parietal cells.​

Brain Res 1990, 529(1-2), p.143:
Mice treated chronically with opioid antagonists have increased receptor d. in brain and are supersensitive to the pharmacodynamic action of morphine. In the present study mice were implanted s.c. with naltrexone or placebo pellets for 8 days. During implantation mice received daily injections of morphine (100 or 250 mg/kg) or saline. [...] Thus, if naltrexone-induced opioid receptor upregulation occurs in the presence of repeated agonist administration, the new binding sites mediate tolerance via desensitization to morphine.​

Eur J Pharmacol 2000, 406(3), p.345:
It is well known that tolerance develops to the actions of caffeine, which acts as an antagonist on adenosine A1 and A2A receptors. Since selective adenosine A2A antagonists have been proposed as adjuncts to 3,4-dihydroxyphenylalanine (l-DOPA) therapy in Parkinson's disease we wanted to examine if tolerance also develops to the selective A2A receptor antagonist 5-amino-7-(2-phenylethyl)-2-(2-furyl)-pyrazolo-[4,3-e]-1,2,4-triazolo [1,5-c]pyrimidine (SCH 58261). SCH 58261 (0.1 and 7.5 mg/kg) increased basal locomotion and the motor stimulation afforded by apomorphine. Neither effect was subject to tolerance following long-term treatment with the same doses given i.p. twice daily. There were no adaptive changes in A1 and A2A adenosine receptors or their corresponding mRNA or in dopamine D1 or D2 receptors. These results demonstrate that the tolerance that develops to caffeine is not secondary to its inhibition of adenosine A2A receptors. The results also offer hope that long-term treatment with an adenosine A2A receptor antagonist may be possible in man.​

And in particular this one:
Mol Pharmacol 1997, 51(3), p.357:
Receptor-mediated endocytosis has been obsd. after agonist occupation of several G protein-coupled receptors, which contributes to the desensitization response to agonist stimulation; however, the cellular signals required to initiate this process are unclear. In this study, the authors developed and characterized a new antagonist analog of cholecystokinin (D-Tyr-Gly-[(Nle28,31,D-Trp30)cholecystokinin-26-32]-phenethyl ester) that can be tagged with a fluorescent rhodamine and radioiodinated. This has permitted the authors to demonstrate that antagonist occupation of the cholecystokinin receptor also results in receptor internalization, which dissocs. this response from second messenger signaling activities and receptor phosphorylation. Immunolocalization of this receptor after occupation with an established nonpeptidyl antagonist confirmed this phenomenon. Antagonist-induced receptor internalization probably results from stabilization of the receptor in a conformation that exposes a domain crit. to directing it into the clathrin-dependent endocytic pathway. This work provides evidence for a new and independent mechanism for receptor internalization, provides a mechanism for the rarely obsd. phenomenon of antagonist-induced desensitization, and raises important issues regarding the approach to establish optimal treatment regimens for antagonist drugs.​


Not yet included in this discussion is the part of tolerance caused by the induction of metabolizing enzymes. This can be caused by agonists, inverse agonists and antagonists alike, as their receptor binding profile is not relevant in this respect. The contrary (i.e. inhibition of metabolizing enzymes) is possible, too.
Examples:
- Fluvoxamine (5HT- & NE-reuptake inhibitor) is both a CYP1A2-substrate and -inhibitor.
- Carbamazepin is both a CYP3A4-substrate and -inductor.


Peace! - Murphy
 
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thanks for the replies, especially that last one murphy, it seems that the world of receptors is extremely complex, especially regarding the signaling cascade that leads to tolerance. both replies were exactly what I was looking for thanks! im going to use these sources to continue my own research. it doesnt seem like any sort of inverse agonist or antagonist can cause reverse tolerance however. (i do not mean like Salvinorin A, where the agonist causes reverse tolerance. )
 
As far as I'm aware, inverse agonists further supress signalling of constitutively active receptors below basal levels, rather than activating a different pathway. A compound that activates any receptor signalling pathway is an agonist.

I guess it's not possible to develop inverse agonists for receptors with no constitutive activity.

Edit: I guess maybe the concept of an antagonist is an oversimplification, as some of the compounds we thought of as antagonists obviously do cause some biological response, just not one that is usually assayed.
 
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As far as I'm aware, inverse agonists further supress signalling of constitutively active receptors below basal levels, rather than activating a different pathway. A compound that activates any receptor signalling pathway is an agonist.

I guess it's not possible to develop inverse agonists for receptors with no constitutive activity.
I think these terms get confused quite often, owning primarily to the lack of understanding of the exact molecular mechanics of GPCRs, and therefore, to the lack of precise definitions of these terms.
I see that you followed the definition from Wiki, which I do not agree with. Please let me explain:

I don't think that there exist receptors without any basal activity. This can be explained by the inherent kinetic movement of any molecule; in a given timeframe, there's a probability of x% that the receptor 'wiggles' itself into its active conformation. Even if this percentage may be incredibly low (it differs from receptor ro receptor!), it is never zero unless the whole system gets literally frozen. Anything else would defy valid thermodynamic laws. I admit, if basal activity falls short of a certain value (like 0.001% or something), it would be a sufficient approximation to speak of an 'inactive' receptor. In addition to the thermodynamic argument, do not forget that the most stable conformation of a receptor (i.e. the most prevalent one) is not necessarily the one showing the lowest activity.* Or in other words: In some (all?) cases it is possible to turn the receptor further OFF than it already is in absence of any ligand.
Just to make that clear: To date, the vast majority of receptors scientifically described (but not all!) have a basal activity next to zero. A famous example for an exception can be found at the bottom of this post.

The concept of a receptor being able to be either "ON" or "OFF" is clearly too oversimplified, as receptors do not work in a binary (1=ON, 0=OFF), but rather analog fashion; there are more than just 2 conformations possible! It would be more appropriate to attribute at least some intermediate degrees of activity, like: OFF - little ... medium ... high activity - ON.

And here are already the first misunderstandings created: The physiological ligand is not necessarily the one that produces the full 100% response from a receptor, so what do we define as full agonist then (ie. one that gives the maximimal possible activity)? Any ligand that acts as good as the physiological one? In my opinion (and its indeed only an opinion, as these terms were not strictly defined by any authorative source):

1) any compound that enables the maximal possible activation of the receptor's signaling cascade shall be defined as "full agonist".

2) any compound that causes a response below this (including a reasonable cuttoff-value) is only a "partial agonist".

3a) any compound that does not affect the basal activity of the receptor is a "neutral antagonist". It simply stabilizes the receptor in its physiologically predominant conformation.

3b) any compound that stabilizes the receptor in the conformation with the lowest activity possible is a "full antagonist" (or "inverse agonist" acc. to your definition).​

If the basal activity is already approx. zero than neutral and full antagonists are the same thing. Hence, the differentiation into 3a and 3b, rather than 3 & 4.

BUT: This model does still not consider the possibility that receptors can signal several different intracellular signaling cascades! Before it was discovered that such manifold way of activation is possible, scientist were already happy if they knew the 'one' signaling pathway, which they could observe. Any ligand that caused an increased response of this 'one' pathway was therefore an agonist, any ligand that decreased the response was an antagonist. This concept is now outdated!!!
As I elaborated in my last post, many compounds that were formerly thought to be antagonist do not lower the response from that 'one' signaling pathway simply by blocking the binding pocket, but rather by activating other signaling pathways. As these pathways are quite often connected intracellularly with each other in a regulatory fashion, turning on a different cascase often looks simply like turning off the cascade that one was originally observing! Therefore I define as follows:

4) any ligand that causes a different signaling cascade to be activated than the physiological ligand (...my reference in this case) is called an "inverse agonist", no matter if the signaling cascade of the physiological ligand is affected by this or not.​


Edit: I guess maybe the concept of an antagonist is an oversimplification, as some of the compounds we thought of as antagonists obviously do cause some biological response, just not one that is usually assayed.
You got it! :)


The presented concept is open for discussion and I would appreciate any constructive input.

PEACE! - Murphy


_______________________________________________
* An example:
Wolfgang Sadée, Danxin Wang, Edward J. Bilsky
"Basal opioid receptor activity, neutral antagonists, and therapeutic opportunities"
Life Sciences 2005, 76, pp.1427-1437:
The μ opioid receptor (MOR, OPRM) – the principal receptor involved in narcotic addiction– has been shown to display basal (spontaneous, constitutive) signaling activity. Interaction with other signaling proteins, such as calmodulin, regulates basal MOR activity. Providing a mechanism for long-lasting regulation, basal MOR activity potentially plays a key role in addiction, in combination with gene regulation and synaptic remodeling. Recent results support a link to physical dependence – one of the main manifestations of addiction to drugs of abuse. The prototypical opioid antagonists, naloxone and naltrexone, were shown to act as inverse agonists in the morphine-dependent state (i.e., they suppress basal MOR signaling) and thereby appear to elicit or contribute to precipitated withdrawal. This affords the opportunity to explore therapeutic applications for neutral antagonists (blocking agonists at MOR without affecting basal activity) with reduced adverse effects. Neutral antagonists are promising drug candidates in the treatment of addiction and overdose, and of peripheral adverse effects of narcotic analgesics.
 
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I agree that there are probably no receptors with zero constitutive activity, for the reason you said, I just meant to make a point that if there were, it would be impossible for a drug to act as an inverse agonist at that receptor.

I was confused by your definition of an inverse agonist as a ligand that suppresses one pathway by activating another. I guess it's possible for that to happen, it's an interesting idea I've never thought about before. But I would say that if the ligand activates any pathway it should be called an agonist of some sort. I don't think it's a good idea to use inverse agonist for something which activates a different pathway than that usually measured though, partly because it's confusing, I think, and partly because there are so many signalling pathways that two terms (agonist and inverse agonist) just aren't enough.

I'd rather call anything that activates one or many pathways an agonist at those pathways. And, like you said, a full antagonist is probably a better term for what I was calling an inverse agonist.

As for the definition of a full agonist, I think it's fine to use the endogenous ligand as the standard for maximum intrinsic activity. Sure, some compounds may have higher activity, or even activate pathways not triggered by the endogenous ligand, but it's a good start at least.

Just thought this was funny, from a paper I was looking in yesterday:
The potency of 5-HT (EC50) 329 (+-38 nM; n=4) and its intrinsic activity (IA = 1.0) compare well with results previously reported by Doyle et al.

Oh really? The intrinsic activity of 5-HT at 5-HT2AR is 1!?
 
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