Sturnam
Bluelighter
- Joined
- Aug 12, 2008
- Messages
- 738
So, I just read this in a basic pharmacology book.
Would this be the cause of the taste that IV users say comes with a good shot? But if my understanding of this is right, excreted means that the taste would come after the drug is metabolized, right? But all of the "taste" reports I have read say that the taste comes right with the rush. How is this possible? Is some of the drug metabolized and excreted into saliva before the effects of the drug are felt? Or is there another explanation for this?
Some intravenously administered drugs are
excreted into saliva and cause the patient to taste the drug.
Would this be the cause of the taste that IV users say comes with a good shot? But if my understanding of this is right, excreted means that the taste would come after the drug is metabolized, right? But all of the "taste" reports I have read say that the taste comes right with the rush. How is this possible? Is some of the drug metabolized and excreted into saliva before the effects of the drug are felt? Or is there another explanation for this?
