I've recently learnt that certain receptors have as different as opposing effects in different parts of the brain. How can a systemically administrated drug work in any sensible way since it is supposed to go everywhere?
Let's use mu-opioid modulation as an example. Systemic administrations of opioids produce a lot of pleasure. Antagonists do not behave in opposite ways: naltrexone and naloxone do not significantly reduce the pleasure humans get from naturally rewarding stimuli. In some experiments they have reduced pleasure to some extent, but these findings are in the minority and generally it seems that if you take an opioid antagonist, you'll feel natural pleasure just as well as you used to. But here's some conflicting data: in recent microinjection studies, mu antagonism in certain spots of the brain was found to prevent natural pleasure: in some spots of the brain, mu AGONISM was found to reduce pleasure. I'm referring to this study: http://www.lsa.umich.edu/psych/research&labs/berridge/publications/preprints/smith%20mahler%20pecina%20&%20berridge%20-%20pleasure%20chapter%20proofs.doc.pdf
Don't the effects of systemically administrated mu agonists and mu antagonists now seem a bit odd? Why don't they induce any of the aforementioned effects that are specific to certain loci? Don't they go everywhere? Are there places they don't enter?
Generally, any info on the mechanisms of systemic administrations is appreciated - I'd like to better understand the topic.
Thank you!
Let's use mu-opioid modulation as an example. Systemic administrations of opioids produce a lot of pleasure. Antagonists do not behave in opposite ways: naltrexone and naloxone do not significantly reduce the pleasure humans get from naturally rewarding stimuli. In some experiments they have reduced pleasure to some extent, but these findings are in the minority and generally it seems that if you take an opioid antagonist, you'll feel natural pleasure just as well as you used to. But here's some conflicting data: in recent microinjection studies, mu antagonism in certain spots of the brain was found to prevent natural pleasure: in some spots of the brain, mu AGONISM was found to reduce pleasure. I'm referring to this study: http://www.lsa.umich.edu/psych/research&labs/berridge/publications/preprints/smith%20mahler%20pecina%20&%20berridge%20-%20pleasure%20chapter%20proofs.doc.pdf
Don't the effects of systemically administrated mu agonists and mu antagonists now seem a bit odd? Why don't they induce any of the aforementioned effects that are specific to certain loci? Don't they go everywhere? Are there places they don't enter?
Generally, any info on the mechanisms of systemic administrations is appreciated - I'd like to better understand the topic.
Thank you!
