I heard a lot of people say that the naloxone in suboxone actually doesn't make any difference. Where i live, the doctors say it's in there to prevent constipation and to make abuse (i.v. etc) impossible. But from what i hear, people snort, plug and shoot them just like subutex and seem to get the full effects or sometimes slightly weaker. I heave no experience with this substance, so i don't know if that's true, but i found it quite interesting. The people who claim it doesn't make a difference say this is because the drug binds to the receptors stronger than naloxone, but i don't know if that's true.
It seems that the reaction to naloxone differs quite a bit betweens individuals in general. With tilidine (4mg naloxone per 50mg tilidine) it seems like some people have problems with naloxone interfering with the opioid-effects with doses as low as 150-200mg (so 12-16mg naloxone) and others take 300-500mg (up to 40mg naloxone) without reporting any problems or loss of effect. But because we're talking about oral administration here this could be explained by the individual capability of one's liver to inactivate the naloxone.
