brainticket
Greenlighter
- Joined
- Apr 23, 2012
- Messages
- 8
I came across this paragraph on the TAC website while doing some research.
"Drug driving is a serious road safety issue, with approximately 32% of all drivers and motorcyclists killed in 2009 found to have drugs present in their system. Cannabis and stimulants are the most commonly detected illegal drugs among drivers killed on Victoria’s roads, with around 15% of drivers and motorcyclists killed in 2009 testing positive to THC the active component of cannabis or illicit stimulant/amphetamine type drugs such as ecstasy."
I've been pulling this statement apart for days.
At first sight this looks like a deliberate attempt at distorting the public perception of drugs. The statement itself is meaningless for the following reasons -
1/ Are these 32% of drivers/motorcyclists only the at fault dead drivers/motorcyclists, or all dead drivers/motorcyclists. By using all dead drivers/motorcyclists in the stat (as it reads technically) but spinning it as the at fault drivers/motorcyclists (kind of as it reads to an average person) is a huge distortion of the facts. This statement should at least clarify this! If I'm going through a green light at 55km/h but holding my mobile phone and a truck runs the red and t-bones me I don't think I should be added to the 'mobile-phones cause accidents' statistic (of course, I'm not saying that using mobile phones while driving is safe).
2/ What drugs? Do these toxicology stats include caffeine/nicotine/paracetemol? If so one would think HOLY CRAP! That is a LOW rate - the only people dying on the roads are those not boosted up on something!
3/ All this statement is saying is what percentage of drivers/motorcyclist fatalities have drugs detected. It says nothing of how this compares to the rate of drug detection in drivers/motorcyclists who do not crash/die because we don't tend to do toxicology reports on those people. FREAKING MEANINGLESS!!! Roadside swap testing stats cannot be used for comparison because that test method is ineffective.
So, are statements like this trying to scare the reader through spinning that drug use is over represented in at fault driver fatalities, or is it just that the people writing this shit just don't know how to properly present facts (or cite sources)?
Personally, I think that there should be some accountability for this kind of public poor/mis-representation of fact.
Please discuss.
"Drug driving is a serious road safety issue, with approximately 32% of all drivers and motorcyclists killed in 2009 found to have drugs present in their system. Cannabis and stimulants are the most commonly detected illegal drugs among drivers killed on Victoria’s roads, with around 15% of drivers and motorcyclists killed in 2009 testing positive to THC the active component of cannabis or illicit stimulant/amphetamine type drugs such as ecstasy."
I've been pulling this statement apart for days.
At first sight this looks like a deliberate attempt at distorting the public perception of drugs. The statement itself is meaningless for the following reasons -
1/ Are these 32% of drivers/motorcyclists only the at fault dead drivers/motorcyclists, or all dead drivers/motorcyclists. By using all dead drivers/motorcyclists in the stat (as it reads technically) but spinning it as the at fault drivers/motorcyclists (kind of as it reads to an average person) is a huge distortion of the facts. This statement should at least clarify this! If I'm going through a green light at 55km/h but holding my mobile phone and a truck runs the red and t-bones me I don't think I should be added to the 'mobile-phones cause accidents' statistic (of course, I'm not saying that using mobile phones while driving is safe).
2/ What drugs? Do these toxicology stats include caffeine/nicotine/paracetemol? If so one would think HOLY CRAP! That is a LOW rate - the only people dying on the roads are those not boosted up on something!
3/ All this statement is saying is what percentage of drivers/motorcyclist fatalities have drugs detected. It says nothing of how this compares to the rate of drug detection in drivers/motorcyclists who do not crash/die because we don't tend to do toxicology reports on those people. FREAKING MEANINGLESS!!! Roadside swap testing stats cannot be used for comparison because that test method is ineffective.
So, are statements like this trying to scare the reader through spinning that drug use is over represented in at fault driver fatalities, or is it just that the people writing this shit just don't know how to properly present facts (or cite sources)?
Personally, I think that there should be some accountability for this kind of public poor/mis-representation of fact.
Please discuss.
