Something is not adding up, can someone please explain (opiates & their receptors)
I have more of a technical/scientific question about opiates and their receptors...
Talking hypothetically here, lets say a person is addicted to opiates. The person needs at least 30mg of oxycodone to curb their withdrawals, or 4mg of bupe to curb their withdrawals. We all know if you take bupe too soon after taking another opiate, the bupe knocks the other opiate off the receptors and puts you into a precipitated withdrawal, so heres where my question comes in...
Say the opiate addict is in withdrawal, then takes 30mg of oxycodone. He feels better, and soon gets his hands on 4mg of bupe but takes it too soon and ends up in precipitated withdrawal. How is this even possible? 30mg of any opiate would take up X amount of receptors, so 4mg would obviously take up 4/30 the amount of receptors, so wouldnt 4mg of bupe only be able to knock off 4mg of the oxy? I feel like the whole concept breaks some sort of law of physics, its not like the bupe can multiply itself, what happen to the other 26mg of oxy?
And the question goes beyond the whole precipitated withdrawal thing. What about potency/dosage in general? You can OD off 1mg of fentanyl, so whats the deal with that? Does the 1mg of fentanyl activate a very small amount of receptors, but so strongly that its enough to kill you? Is there a ceiling dose for weaker opiates like codeine, simply because there are no receptors left to occupy?
I have more of a technical/scientific question about opiates and their receptors...
Talking hypothetically here, lets say a person is addicted to opiates. The person needs at least 30mg of oxycodone to curb their withdrawals, or 4mg of bupe to curb their withdrawals. We all know if you take bupe too soon after taking another opiate, the bupe knocks the other opiate off the receptors and puts you into a precipitated withdrawal, so heres where my question comes in...
Say the opiate addict is in withdrawal, then takes 30mg of oxycodone. He feels better, and soon gets his hands on 4mg of bupe but takes it too soon and ends up in precipitated withdrawal. How is this even possible? 30mg of any opiate would take up X amount of receptors, so 4mg would obviously take up 4/30 the amount of receptors, so wouldnt 4mg of bupe only be able to knock off 4mg of the oxy? I feel like the whole concept breaks some sort of law of physics, its not like the bupe can multiply itself, what happen to the other 26mg of oxy?
And the question goes beyond the whole precipitated withdrawal thing. What about potency/dosage in general? You can OD off 1mg of fentanyl, so whats the deal with that? Does the 1mg of fentanyl activate a very small amount of receptors, but so strongly that its enough to kill you? Is there a ceiling dose for weaker opiates like codeine, simply because there are no receptors left to occupy?
