looneytoon7
Greenlighter
- Joined
- Jan 10, 2014
- Messages
- 5
So, I started taking MDMA/ecstasy early 2013. Then that escalated to meth use. For the last 6 months or so (I cut back a lot in the last 1 month), I was smoking meth approximately 3-6 days a week. I got sick of meth and it started to really fuck with my head and I also really missed the pill/MDMA buzz because I just wasn't getting the same high off meth anymore. I started trying pills again but most of the time they don't work or they put me in a reallllly weird headspace where I just feel really scattered and terrible and wired. Most of the time I had smoked meth before taking the pills as well. But there was one instance where I took 4 brown mitsubishis and 1 brown peace, no meth and I got that really scattered feeling. No pill buzz at all, just really scattered off 5 pills. So I'm wondering, can 6 months of relatively heavy meth use alter the way MDMA/ecstasy effects a person? Also, doing both at the same time, does that change the effects? Like, does meth "cancel out" the effects that MDMA has on the brain? Did I just get a whole bunch of really shit pills? 8
?
Although, I should probably add this... Last Friday, I had 2 white versaces and 2 white rolexs. Lets say, I definitely felt the effects and was dancing around and chatting to everyone but on pill report, people who consider their tolerance to be med-high have had 1 or 2 of the versaces and that was enough for them. Whereas, I had 4 of the best pills around melbourne at the moment, felt really really good but still could of had more. And its not like my tolerance would be high because I take pills really often or anything, because I rarely do. So I guess what I'm trying to ask, the fact that meth damages your dopamine and seratonin receptors or whatever, does that change the way MDMA effects you? Do I just have a freakishly high tolerance to MDMA or something? Did I feel the effect of these pills because I have recently cut back my meth use a decent amount?
I don't think this makes a difference but I also use GHB.

Although, I should probably add this... Last Friday, I had 2 white versaces and 2 white rolexs. Lets say, I definitely felt the effects and was dancing around and chatting to everyone but on pill report, people who consider their tolerance to be med-high have had 1 or 2 of the versaces and that was enough for them. Whereas, I had 4 of the best pills around melbourne at the moment, felt really really good but still could of had more. And its not like my tolerance would be high because I take pills really often or anything, because I rarely do. So I guess what I'm trying to ask, the fact that meth damages your dopamine and seratonin receptors or whatever, does that change the way MDMA effects you? Do I just have a freakishly high tolerance to MDMA or something? Did I feel the effect of these pills because I have recently cut back my meth use a decent amount?
I don't think this makes a difference but I also use GHB.