Sin-thetic
Greenlighter
Hey BL, new here but not to the scene, usually a 2C-x / weed / amph-study-amines guy, not really a user of recreational stimulants since I find it's rarely worth the crash. However, since I'm also the friendly authority on drugs among my friends, one of them asked me the other day "What is crack, anyways?" so I gave the freebase cocaine shpeal, to which another promptly replied "but isn't coke expensive, and crack cheap?". This question has been bothering me quite deeply for about a week now. What self-respecting drug dealer that has cocaine, which is pretty valuable/expensive, would freebase it to a drug that's cheap? How on earth is this profitable? Conversely, would it not be possible to get the freebase cocaine and make it back into a salt? If it's the increased effect that the user looks for, would it not be more effective to simply IV cocaine? Can someone who's familiar with the compound shed some light as to why one is considered mighty and glamorous while the other is considered a poor addict's drug? The pharma/economics behind this just strike me as bizarre and convoluted.