socio
Bluelighter
- Joined
- Dec 14, 2009
- Messages
- 342
I've looked around for this and haven't seen the specific question addressed (including in the big plugging threads I've looked through, but please correct me if I'm mistaken). The concise version of my question is just the bold text.
Does anyone know if there's any difference in effectiveness of plugging drugs depending on how much liquid you use? (Or if the volume-to-bioavailability (BA) relationship is contingent on the specific substance?)
I like to get my morning started off quickly with a fast booty blast, rather than waiting for oral --> GI --> blood absorption --> happy brain. I take benzos and methadone in the AM, plugging 1/3-1/2 of my dose, swallowing the rest.
I've read that in aqueous solutions taken rectally, both 'done and diazepam absorb almost as effectively as orally (all those BAs have been reported as 75-95% -- close enough for me). The "anal advantage" (I know, it's actually "rectal," but I am partial to alliteration): Quicker peak plasma levels as well as slight euphoria.
Side-note: Gyerin & PEG suppositories seem to almost always be reported to absorb much WORSE than aqueous solutions (again, based on some abstracts casually googled up) -- which I think just means something like "mixed with water," right?
I could see it working either way -- two hypotheses:
(I'll add references I've seen for any of those claims if anyone asks, but I'm long-winded as it is...)
Whatta y'all think? Any thoughts? Gracias amigos
Does anyone know if there's any difference in effectiveness of plugging drugs depending on how much liquid you use? (Or if the volume-to-bioavailability (BA) relationship is contingent on the specific substance?)
I like to get my morning started off quickly with a fast booty blast, rather than waiting for oral --> GI --> blood absorption --> happy brain. I take benzos and methadone in the AM, plugging 1/3-1/2 of my dose, swallowing the rest.
I've read that in aqueous solutions taken rectally, both 'done and diazepam absorb almost as effectively as orally (all those BAs have been reported as 75-95% -- close enough for me). The "anal advantage" (I know, it's actually "rectal," but I am partial to alliteration): Quicker peak plasma levels as well as slight euphoria.
Side-note: Gyerin & PEG suppositories seem to almost always be reported to absorb much WORSE than aqueous solutions (again, based on some abstracts casually googled up) -- which I think just means something like "mixed with water," right?
[**EDIT: Actually, many of these are the IV formulations taken rectally, and those do have stuff like alcohols and propylene or propylethylene glycol, &c.]
So I just mix pills in ~3ml water.I could see it working either way -- two hypotheses:
- More liquid could mean the drug is spread out contacting more surface area of rectal membranes, thus more absorption; or,
- Less liquid could mean higher drug concentration, so more rapid, efficient absorption.
(I'll add references I've seen for any of those claims if anyone asks, but I'm long-winded as it is...)
Whatta y'all think? Any thoughts? Gracias amigos
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