If we know that a drug's effective half life is 18 hours, and that the drug potentiates alcohol, then two questions would emerge: 1) why this drugs usual dosage is every 8 hours, as a therapuetic index (yet alone the recreational values), and 2) why this the drug could be demonstrated to have a mild interaction with alcohol, (enough to prove that it is still acting, though not clinically significant.) The particular drug in question is metabloized in the liver, but not with the same chemical markers as ethanol, and is also excreted via renal function. (i.e. the kidneys), and the liver/ kidney function have been demonstrated to be normal by routine blood draw. Is there something I'm not considering here?