In the film "Wonderboys" (which I heartily recommend to anyone unfamiliar with it) two of the characters (writers) are chatting about an imaginary character (a man) who is addicted to painkillers and "can't even piss standing up anymore". I too am male and this distinction is directly relevant to my question below!
For about 8 years now I've been prescribed opioid painkillers non-stop on repeat prescription to treat the chronic pain which ankylosing spondylitis inflicts on me: first codeine-APAP combinations; then dihydrocodeine; dihydrocodeine and tramadol; next methadone tablets; then fentanyl patches and currently fentanyl patches and oxycodone for breakthrough pain.
And whilst it's commonly accepted that opioids (especially pharmaceutical opioids being legitimately prescribed for genuine chronic pain) can be taken pretty safely for many years without any serious damage being done to the body or its organs (such as the damage which paramcetamol/APAP can cause to the liver when taken excessively and/or long-term) I was curious about this "can't even piss standing up anymore" comment in connection to long-term and/or excessive pharmaceutical-grade (i.e. not quite possibly adulterated street heroin, for example) opioid use.
Several years after starting using prescription opioids on a regular basis I noticed that after taking a piss and shaking off my dick there'd often be a drop or two of dribbled urine spotting the inside of my undies so pretty much ever since I've started sitting down on the toilet to piss because this enables a much more thorough "shaking off" of myself after urinating and therefore eliminates (or at the very least drastically minimises) the highly annoying incidence of post-pissing leakage in my undies.
My question then is this: could anybody make an educated guess based on the information I've provided as to whether this post-urination leakage of which I speak is related to my opioid usage or is it merely due to my advancing years (I'm 37 now but apart from the ankylosing spondylitis and epilepsy I'm in good health all things considered) and the presumably deteriorating quality of my prostate and urinary tract function? Or could it be down to something else?
I really enjoy the "Wonderboys" film but whenever I watch it the whole painkiller-deterioration of urinary tract function strikes a chord with me but due to the fairly innocuous gravity of my own personal slight-drippage-post-urination problem I've not so far got around to seeking medical advice on it.
Many many thanks in advance to anyone kind enough to read this post and yet more thanks to anyone who then actually posts a response!
For about 8 years now I've been prescribed opioid painkillers non-stop on repeat prescription to treat the chronic pain which ankylosing spondylitis inflicts on me: first codeine-APAP combinations; then dihydrocodeine; dihydrocodeine and tramadol; next methadone tablets; then fentanyl patches and currently fentanyl patches and oxycodone for breakthrough pain.
And whilst it's commonly accepted that opioids (especially pharmaceutical opioids being legitimately prescribed for genuine chronic pain) can be taken pretty safely for many years without any serious damage being done to the body or its organs (such as the damage which paramcetamol/APAP can cause to the liver when taken excessively and/or long-term) I was curious about this "can't even piss standing up anymore" comment in connection to long-term and/or excessive pharmaceutical-grade (i.e. not quite possibly adulterated street heroin, for example) opioid use.
Several years after starting using prescription opioids on a regular basis I noticed that after taking a piss and shaking off my dick there'd often be a drop or two of dribbled urine spotting the inside of my undies so pretty much ever since I've started sitting down on the toilet to piss because this enables a much more thorough "shaking off" of myself after urinating and therefore eliminates (or at the very least drastically minimises) the highly annoying incidence of post-pissing leakage in my undies.
My question then is this: could anybody make an educated guess based on the information I've provided as to whether this post-urination leakage of which I speak is related to my opioid usage or is it merely due to my advancing years (I'm 37 now but apart from the ankylosing spondylitis and epilepsy I'm in good health all things considered) and the presumably deteriorating quality of my prostate and urinary tract function? Or could it be down to something else?
I really enjoy the "Wonderboys" film but whenever I watch it the whole painkiller-deterioration of urinary tract function strikes a chord with me but due to the fairly innocuous gravity of my own personal slight-drippage-post-urination problem I've not so far got around to seeking medical advice on it.
Many many thanks in advance to anyone kind enough to read this post and yet more thanks to anyone who then actually posts a response!