Hi,
can you help explain how the pharmacological profiles of buprenorphin and methadone make them appropriate to put addicts on them? I tried reading some websites that cover these basics such as wiki but I am not sure if I really get it.
They are probably both a bit different stories, like bupe being mixed agonist while I hear from methadone that it mostly lacks the "flash" that drugs like heroin produce.
Is it basically that drugs like these are a midway solution between being "gone" in nodland and completely kicking opiate habits? Is it a matter of being functional? What is the point in either of these for people who are not necessarily substituting a heavier habit for these ones? I am not asking from a perspective of having any desire to try things like these but I find the significant difference between (A) things like oxycodone, hydrocodone, heroin and other what sound like "standard" opiates, (B) things like buprenorphine or methadone - if they are even remotely to be put together in a category! - and (C) something like fentanyl which seems like another completely different animal entirely...
I guess it also has to do with the fact that I struggle to see what the practical consequences can be for affinity as opposed to efficacy, intrinsic activity, receptor dissociation and other factors of binding.
(Perhaps the choice of thread title was not ideal to cover my actual questions....)
can you help explain how the pharmacological profiles of buprenorphin and methadone make them appropriate to put addicts on them? I tried reading some websites that cover these basics such as wiki but I am not sure if I really get it.
They are probably both a bit different stories, like bupe being mixed agonist while I hear from methadone that it mostly lacks the "flash" that drugs like heroin produce.
Is it basically that drugs like these are a midway solution between being "gone" in nodland and completely kicking opiate habits? Is it a matter of being functional? What is the point in either of these for people who are not necessarily substituting a heavier habit for these ones? I am not asking from a perspective of having any desire to try things like these but I find the significant difference between (A) things like oxycodone, hydrocodone, heroin and other what sound like "standard" opiates, (B) things like buprenorphine or methadone - if they are even remotely to be put together in a category! - and (C) something like fentanyl which seems like another completely different animal entirely...
I guess it also has to do with the fact that I struggle to see what the practical consequences can be for affinity as opposed to efficacy, intrinsic activity, receptor dissociation and other factors of binding.
(Perhaps the choice of thread title was not ideal to cover my actual questions....)
