TheDabbler
Greenlighter
- Joined
- Nov 7, 2014
- Messages
- 1
Hi all! I'm new to this forum and I have a question about Oxymorphone. If someone were to insuffilate 40mg of Oxymorphone, what would be the equivalent dose taken orally? The plan is to switch back to oral administration but I have no idea what dosage orally would be needed to not get sick. Also oxymorphone is time released do I know that makes a difference. I am aware that a 40mg oxymorphone insuffilated yields about 16mg in the blood. I've heard oral bioavailability is about 10% so that would mean a 40mg pill would yield roughly 4mg.
Are these statements of mine correct? If so the part that gets confusing is the time release. They are supposed to be 12 hour ERs, so if one 40mg pill yields 4mg in the blood does that mean the oxymorphone releases that 4mg over 12 hours? If so that seems like a ridiculously low amount of medicine being released. Any advice on this would be much appreciated!
Are these statements of mine correct? If so the part that gets confusing is the time release. They are supposed to be 12 hour ERs, so if one 40mg pill yields 4mg in the blood does that mean the oxymorphone releases that 4mg over 12 hours? If so that seems like a ridiculously low amount of medicine being released. Any advice on this would be much appreciated!
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