• Psychedelic Drugs Welcome Guest
    View threads about
    Posting RulesBluelight Rules
    PD's Best Threads Index
    Social ThreadSupport Bluelight
    Psychedelic Beginner's FAQ
  • PD Moderators: Esperighanto | JackARoe | Cheshire_Kat

Overcoming Ayahuasca nausea to get the most out of an experience.

Same as codeine (3-methylmorphine), heroin (diacetylmorphine) and morphine, virtually the same structure, and all metabolising into morphine, but different effects.

Can you tell the difference in those three willow? Say if I made up a 10mg tablet of morphine, an equivalent dose in codeine and heroin and you took them all orally would you definately be able to tell the difference? I've taken low doses of oral morphine and I wouldn't like to bet my life on being able to distuingish it from codiene.
 
In what sense? Do you mean it doesn't sound like it should happen when you write it on a peice of peice of paper in the lab? Or are you saying the human brain definately can't work like this? Similar drugs can latch onto the same receptors and create the same effects in the human brain, the brain isn't that particular about it - if it looks close enough the receptor picks it up.

I'm not really talking about how the human brain works, moreso about how human metabolism works. I could be wrong, but I am getting the idea that you think mushrooms and moclobemide will somehow transform psilocin/psilocybin intot n,n,DMT. This simply cannot happen.

There's also one other striking thing. Riddle me this...You can take mushrooms by themselves on consecutive weeks and still feel full psilocybin effects. Take mushrooms and moclobemide on consecutive weeks and the effects are massively weaker. You just get very weak DMT effects and absolutely no psilocybin like effects whatsoever. The moclobemide inactivates the psilocybin completely - it simply doesn't work.

According to you, mushrooms and moclbemide create an oral DMT trip, so the above bit doesn't make sense. One, you mentioned having "no psilocybin like effects" but you've been saying that this combo gives you DMT effects, so what is unusual to you about not experiencing psilobyin effects? Isn't that what you've been saying? Secondly, you said that this combo still gives you light DMT effects after repeated dosing so I'm unsure how you can draw the conclusion you have ("it simply doesn't work").

Moclobemide doesn't inactivate the actual psychedelic chemicals of these drugs, just the metabolic enzymes responsible. The reason why the effects decrease is most likely due to physiological tolerance.



Answer that and stay fashionable :)

I tried, but I'm not actually sort what your point was....?

Nah, it's not that they "feel similar", if that was all it was I'd say that. You see EXACTLY the same DMT visuals. Oral DMT visuals are pretty unique. Those oriental arabesque translucent shapes floating in the air and filling your field of view. I've only ever seen that on one drug - oral DMT (and mushrooms and moclobemide)

one drug - oral DMT (and mushrooms and moclobemide)

=D Thats three drugs....;) I think we are actually talking about different things here. I'm saying that 4-Ho-DMT isn't DMT, and when taken orally with a MAOi, it doesn't chemically change into n,n,DMT. I think that you're saying that the effects are the same, despite the chemicals being different.

One thing; the common factor here (for you) is the moclobemide. I'm unsure if that means anything, but yeah...


No-one's saying it does. I'm saying that in the presence of moclobemide they act on the brain receptors so similarly that the human brain is unable to distuingish between them.

I just don't agree with you then. Saying that using MAOi and mushroom is a good way to get used to oral DMT is illogical, because they are different drugs.

Almost all psychedelics work on the same family of receptors, but that doesn't guarantee anything more then a broad similarity of experience. In truth, the brain does recognise the difference because different drugs may have a different affinity for possibly the same receptor type. Its the mind that might get confused.


Same as codeine (3-methylmorphine), heroin (diacetylmorphine) and morphine, virtually the same structure, and all metabolising into morphine, but different effects.

Can you tell the difference in those three willow? Say if I made up a 10mg tablet of morphine, an equivalent dose in codeine and heroin and you took them all orally would you definately be able to tell the difference? I've taken low doses of oral morphine and I wouldn't like to bet my life on being able to distuingish it from codiene.

Yeah, easily tell the difference. Codeine can cause a more intense histamine relase then the others (itching, dry eyes), requires a higher dose, doesn't last as long, is not as sedating. Morphine has a tendency to cause a tight feeling in the chest, more nausea and motion sickness, very constricted pupils, stronger nod, stronger sedation, stronger euphoria...Heroin IV and morphine IV are similar, though heroin seems to cause a stronger and more intense initial euphoria, probably due to the initial effects of actual diacetylmorphine before it is broken down into morphine.

I might have some trouble distinguishing between heroin and morphine, but I would certainly be able to say that they are not the same drug.

Peace...:)
 
I haven't tried ayahuasca, just smoked or injected DMT. I'd expect zofran (a prescription anti-nausea med) to completely prevent any nausea if I ever did try ayahuasca. A 4 mg zofran pill taken beforehand will prevent any psychedelic or stimulant nausea I'd normally get from shrooms, mescaline, MDMA, mephedrone, etc. I'm normally susceptible to nausea with these and several other drugs, but I have yet to find a case where zofran doesn't work well.
 
I'm not really talking about how the human brain works, moreso about how human metabolism works. I could be wrong, but I am getting the idea that you think mushrooms and moclobemide will somehow transform psilocin/psilocybin intot n,n,DMT.

Or the brain considers it close enough to lock onto the same receptors.

According to you, mushrooms and moclbemide create an oral DMT trip, so the above bit doesn't make sense

Let me explain it again. You can take mushrooms two weeks in a row and notice effects. Agreed? However oral DMT drops off massively if you take it two weeks in a row.

So what do you think happens when you take mushrooms and moclobemide two weeks in a row? Yep - you've got it, the effects drop off massively. Just like with oral DMT.

So what's happened to the psilocybin? Why arn't you getting psilocybin effects in the presence of moclobemide? Why only DMT effects?

so I'm unsure how you can draw the conclusion you have ("it simply doesn't work").

Well, I'm saying the psilocybin doesn't work. How come you can trip on psilocybin two weeks in a row but if moclobemide is present you can't? You're claiming moclobemide makes no change to the psilocybin so therefore you'd trip balls on the psilocybin. Right?


Moclobemide doesn't inactivate the actual psychedelic chemicals of these drugs


Yeah it does. If you take psilocybin two weeks in a row you trip your nuts off. If you take psilocybin and moclobemide two weeks in a row you notice no psilocybin effect whatsoever. Regardless of the amount of psilocybin you take you remain stone cold sober. There is no psilocybin acting in your body. Moclobemide clearly has a massive effect on psilocybin and it's effect on the human brain.

The reason why the effects decrease is most likely due to physiological tolerance.

1) Psilocybin by itself works two weeks in a row.

2) Oral DMT and moclo doesn't work two weeks in a row
3) Mushrooms and moclo doesn't work two weeks in a row.

Can you explain this? If, as you claim, it's just "psilocybin potentiated" then it would work two weeks in a row wouldn't it?

Saying that using MAOi and mushroom is a good way to get used to oral DMT is illogical, because they are different drugs.

Only in the sense that one has far less nausea. If you like vomiting while experiencing DMT then ok. I'd prefer not to vomit while experiencing DMT. I believe this is because oral DMT rockets you to the peak within 30 mins while with mushrooms it takes 90-120 minutes for the DMT to reach peak concentration.


Yeah, easily tell the difference.


We'll have to agree to disagree on that one then willow. I've taken morphine and codiene orally and I'd be hard pushed to tell the difference between equivalent doses. Particularly low to medium doses. I only notice anti-histamine effects or "nods" when I've taken staggering doses of codeine.

Heroin IV and morphine IV

Lets stick to oral, IV is a different animal.
 
Last edited:
Lets stick to oral

That, at least, should provoke no arguments :-)

Seriously though you 2, thanks for the fascinating back and forth, but I suspect the OP is about to retract his earlier statement that he 'didn't mind' me starting this tangent.

What I will say is this: For many of us mere mortals, access to things like 'freebase DMT' will probably remain a fantasy for the foreseeable future. That leaves regular ayahuasca and (for those with access to shrooms) the fascinating-sounding shroomahuasca as the main practical options.

I believe that I have been seduced enough by this argument to try a low-dose of shroomahuasca to initiate myself into this world. Thanks again
 
^This is a dance me and Ismene often do...:)

Or the brain considers it close enough to lock onto the same receptors.

I've absolutely no doubt that it 'locks onto the same receptors'. Psilocybin/psilocin is a 5-ht2a agonist, as is DMT, LSD, 2C-B, mescaline, etc. Most typical psychedelics agonise 5-HT2A (amongst other receptors). Its thought that effects at this recpetor is what causes one to trip.

According to you, mushrooms and moclbemide create an oral DMT trip, so the above bit doesn't make sense

Let me explain it again. You can take mushrooms two weeks in a row and notice effects. Agreed? However oral DMT drops off massively if you take it two weeks in a row.

So what do you think happens when you take mushrooms and moclobemide two weeks in a row? Yep - you've got it, the effects drop off massively. Just like with oral DMT.

So what's happened to the psilocybin? Why arn't you getting psilocybin effects in the presence of moclobemide? Why only DMT effects?

I'm sure you are aware of what physiological tolerance is, but in case your not, the brain adapts to the presence of drugs by downregulation of receptors. This essentially means that there are less receptor sites for a molecule to bind to, thereby decreasing the effects of the drug in question. Another form of tolerance is a decrease in enyzmes responsible for metabolising a drug, which once again, leads to decreased effect of the drug. Psychedelics are known for causing very quick tolerance. An argument could be made that combining MAOI's with certain drugs will cause a greater tolerance, as more of a MAO-inhibited substance will reach the brain, plus the natural catecholamines such as serotonin and dopamine will have had their effect increased and potentiated leading to further tolerance.

There is anything magical or mysterious going on here. You are describing tolerance.

But once again, you are mentioning DMT here. The truth is, and this is not subjective but a plain fact; if you do not ingest DMT, you cannot feel the effects of it. If you ingest psilocybin/psilocin with a MAOi, you do not feel the effects of DMT, but you do feel the effects of psilocin/psilocybin potentiated. The human body does not have the ability to break psilocin down into DMT. Once again, if you have not ingested DMT you cannot feel the effects of it.

so I'm unsure how you can draw the conclusion you have ("it simply doesn't work").

Well, I'm saying the psilocybin doesn't work. How come you can trip on psilocybin two weeks in a row but if moclobemide is present you can't? You're claiming moclobemide makes no change to the psilocybin so therefore you'd trip balls on the psilocybin. Right?

No, I'm not saying that. Moclobemide, as a molecule, does directly not interact with psilocybin. Moclobemide interacts with the monoamine oxidase enyme group, by disabling it temporarily, allowing increased levels of certain chemicals, including psilcybin.


Moclobemide doesn't inactivate the actual psychedelic chemicals of these drugs


Yeah it does. If you take psilocybin two weeks in a row you trip your nuts off. If you take psilocybin and moclobemide two weeks in a row you notice no psilocybin effect whatsoever. Regardless of the amount of psilocybin you take you remain stone cold sober. There is no psilocybin acting in your body. Moclobemide clearly has a massive effect on psilocybin and it's effect on the human brain.

Of course it has a massive effect on the brain. It increases many of the basic neurotransmitters.

you remain stone cold sober

I thought you said that you experieced mild DMT effects. Thats not sobriety.

The reason why the effects decrease is most likely due to physiological tolerance.

1) Psilocybin by itself works two weeks in a row.

2) Oral DMT and moclo doesn't work two weeks in a row
3) Mushrooms and moclo doesn't work two weeks in a row.

Can you explain this? If, as you claim, it's just "psilocybin potentiated" then it would work two weeks in a row wouldn't it?

Not neccesarily, and evidently not, because it is potentiated psilocybin. Drug tolerance- read up on it.

Saying that using MAOi and mushroom is a good way to get used to oral DMT is illogical, because they are different drugs.

Only in the sense that one has far less nausea. If you like vomiting while experiencing DMT then ok. I'd prefer not to vomit while experiencing DMT. I believe this is because oral DMT rockets you to the peak within 30 mins while with mushrooms it takes 90-120 minutes for the DMT to reach peak concentration.
Again. If you take mushrooms, you are not going to feel the effects of DMT, unless you have consumed DMT also. DMT and psilocybin/psilocin are different drugs. Psilocybin/psilocin do not turn into DMT.

What you are doing is conflating psilocybin/psilocin with DMT. Its a logical infallacy based on your perceived experience of each drug causing the same effects. I'm not arguing that they don't cause extremely similar effects, just that they are indeed two different drugs and that psilocybin doesn't metabolise into DMT in any conditions, therefore conflating shroomahuasca with ayahuasca is a definite untruth .

We'll have to agree to disagree on that one then willow. I've taken morphine and codiene orally and I'd be hard pushed to tell the difference between equivalent doses. Particularly low to medium doses. I only notice anti-histamine effects or "nods" when I've taken staggering doses of codeine.

This is purely subjective. I, personally, can distinguish between codeine, morphine and heroin, simply because I've used them many times. Other people may not be able to.

By the way, your not ever going to get antihistamine effects from an opiate; generally, they release histamine.
 
That, at least, should provoke no arguments :-)

Oral it is! :D

I think the only way forward in this mass debate is if Black octagon, willow and myself all get together and throw a shroomahuasca drugs party.

When everyone is stumbling round saying "It's just like DMT" I will remark quietly to willow "That cannot be...as you said yourself..." =D
 
Top