sarbanes
Bluelighter
- Joined
- Mar 8, 2007
- Messages
- 481
My 1st post! I’m working on a theory based on personal, anecdotal evidence, and others’ reports. The theory is, as an independent factor, generally, the simpler the structure of the opioid, the more euphoric potential of that molecule in humans. And part two is, the more potent the opioid analgesic, the lower the euphoria produced at effective (analgesic) doses. In otherworlds, something like carfentanil I hear produces relatively little euphoria (as compared to fentanyl, for one), and if you equalize its therapeutic index ratio, it is consistent with the theory. So, by this theory, a simple molecule with lower than average potency would have greatest potential for causing the most profound euphoria. Good candidates would be lower potency homologues (simple alkyl) of the benzimidazole type, tramadol, and ketobemidone (and lower potency analogs), and several in the methadone series (perhaps Dipipanone). I have noticed these correlation time and again. Anyone care to comment. Tnx
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Now, B4 I get the inevitable flame like "then how come codeine doesn't produce as much euphoria, huh", or "your wrong man, fentanyl really gets me high", remember, I am postulating this as only one *independent* factor. It in no way is meant to account to, or control for every mechanism involved. Sorry to preempt, but I just know that I would get a flame.

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Now, B4 I get the inevitable flame like "then how come codeine doesn't produce as much euphoria, huh", or "your wrong man, fentanyl really gets me high", remember, I am postulating this as only one *independent* factor. It in no way is meant to account to, or control for every mechanism involved. Sorry to preempt, but I just know that I would get a flame.
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