JohnBoy2000
Bluelighter
- Joined
- May 11, 2016
- Messages
- 2,468
My fear is basically - the cause of my initial neurologic dysfunction is, I have absolutely no idea.
Alls I know is I started to socially withdraw and my energy, appetite, sleep etc - all started to deteriorate, and then went to hell altogether.
In terms of amelioration - my primary focus was resolution of the biological symptoms - energy, cognizance, functionality etc.
Cause without that - well, you can't really do anything.
So with a combination of Mianserin and Atomoxetine - I managed to potentiate the noradrenergic effect to the most acute possible level, and in my opinion, achieve rectification of noradrenergic based dysfunction.
It then became apparent to me that - mood was still a prominent complaint - via social withdrawal (I'm normally highly sociable).
So I'm in the process of acquiring approval for a serotonergic agent.
I did start with Effexor - but that interfered with the fine noradrenaline balance I had achieved, so I needed to stop it.
Whilst I await further approval - which seems like it's taking forever (next drug I have lined up is Lexapro), my fear is that - well, here's the situation:
It seemed to me that, my energy complaints were precipitated via social withdrawal.
So I'm basically concerned that - perhaps, relative to the BDNF neurogenesis hypothesis of depression - there may occur some further noradrenergic, degeneration?
Or malfunction in some capacity - relative to the fine noradrenergic balance I've attained - basically, whilst I await serotonergic enhancement.
Is that even possible?
I don't know enough about neuroscience to be able to distinguish whether that's just a neurotic fear, or an actual neurological possibility.
My point being - if I had serotonergic and corresponding mood enhancement occur immediately - it perhaps would precluded implication or exacerbation of biological symptoms relative to noradrenaline - as my hypothesis goes.
To further that - my contention is - if I was treated with SSRI's in the very early days and hadn't undergone such grotesque degrees of social withdrawal - perhaps biological symptoms wouldn't have occurred in such pronounced fashion in the first place??
Possible - or just irrational, from neuroscience standpoint?
Alls I know is I started to socially withdraw and my energy, appetite, sleep etc - all started to deteriorate, and then went to hell altogether.
In terms of amelioration - my primary focus was resolution of the biological symptoms - energy, cognizance, functionality etc.
Cause without that - well, you can't really do anything.
So with a combination of Mianserin and Atomoxetine - I managed to potentiate the noradrenergic effect to the most acute possible level, and in my opinion, achieve rectification of noradrenergic based dysfunction.
It then became apparent to me that - mood was still a prominent complaint - via social withdrawal (I'm normally highly sociable).
So I'm in the process of acquiring approval for a serotonergic agent.
I did start with Effexor - but that interfered with the fine noradrenaline balance I had achieved, so I needed to stop it.
Whilst I await further approval - which seems like it's taking forever (next drug I have lined up is Lexapro), my fear is that - well, here's the situation:
It seemed to me that, my energy complaints were precipitated via social withdrawal.
So I'm basically concerned that - perhaps, relative to the BDNF neurogenesis hypothesis of depression - there may occur some further noradrenergic, degeneration?
Or malfunction in some capacity - relative to the fine noradrenergic balance I've attained - basically, whilst I await serotonergic enhancement.
Is that even possible?
I don't know enough about neuroscience to be able to distinguish whether that's just a neurotic fear, or an actual neurological possibility.
My point being - if I had serotonergic and corresponding mood enhancement occur immediately - it perhaps would precluded implication or exacerbation of biological symptoms relative to noradrenaline - as my hypothesis goes.
To further that - my contention is - if I was treated with SSRI's in the very early days and hadn't undergone such grotesque degrees of social withdrawal - perhaps biological symptoms wouldn't have occurred in such pronounced fashion in the first place??
Possible - or just irrational, from neuroscience standpoint?