Le Junk
Bluelighter
I have some background in chemistry, but not so much biology. And when it comes to neurology, I have a huge question regarding seretonin loss and excessive MDMA use.
After 25 years of use now, I've noticed that nearly all of the majic is gone. However, I do notice that when taking lab tested, pure MDMA, that I will experience that old school type of rolling, but it's short lasting (maybe 15-20 minutes at best), and then I'll go into an almost retarded type of mode.
In going with what I've always thought as a tolerance, I take more nowdays than I used too, but in turn, feel less. I've done alot of thinking about this, and since I have no background in medical science, thought I'd pose the question to someone who may have the answer.
For example, let's assume you've never done ecstasy before. Your seretonin block is as big as it will ever be. At this point, it is recommended that you take 120 mg.s of MDMA to manipulate all of your seretonin and acheive the true MDMA high. It take's quite awhile for all of your seretonin to replenish itself, but yet the very next week you hit it again before it's fully replenished. So, let's assume your original seretonin block is now back to 50% of it's original size. Do you still need that 120 mg.s of MDMA this time, or is less required? I have always heard and thought that I was supposedly building up a tolerance, but wouldn't this scenerio present more of the exact opposite. Logic would seem to dictate that if your seretonin level is only at 50% of it's full size, that only 60 mg.s of MDMA would be required to acheive the true MDMA high. Logic would also seem to dictate that taking more than 120 mg.s would push the user into more of a state of overkill, or seretonin syndrome.
I'm wondering if the fact that I'm taking more nowdays than ever before, yet feeling less, and then retarded is something more along the lines of seretonin syndrome. Does this make any sense at all? I'm sober right now, so I have no excuse if this is completely idiotic, but is this a possibility. In my situation, is less possibly more? The next time I do E I will be experimenting with this proposition. Instead of 3 then 2, I'm going 2 then 1. Anyone?
Le Junk
After 25 years of use now, I've noticed that nearly all of the majic is gone. However, I do notice that when taking lab tested, pure MDMA, that I will experience that old school type of rolling, but it's short lasting (maybe 15-20 minutes at best), and then I'll go into an almost retarded type of mode.
In going with what I've always thought as a tolerance, I take more nowdays than I used too, but in turn, feel less. I've done alot of thinking about this, and since I have no background in medical science, thought I'd pose the question to someone who may have the answer.
For example, let's assume you've never done ecstasy before. Your seretonin block is as big as it will ever be. At this point, it is recommended that you take 120 mg.s of MDMA to manipulate all of your seretonin and acheive the true MDMA high. It take's quite awhile for all of your seretonin to replenish itself, but yet the very next week you hit it again before it's fully replenished. So, let's assume your original seretonin block is now back to 50% of it's original size. Do you still need that 120 mg.s of MDMA this time, or is less required? I have always heard and thought that I was supposedly building up a tolerance, but wouldn't this scenerio present more of the exact opposite. Logic would seem to dictate that if your seretonin level is only at 50% of it's full size, that only 60 mg.s of MDMA would be required to acheive the true MDMA high. Logic would also seem to dictate that taking more than 120 mg.s would push the user into more of a state of overkill, or seretonin syndrome.
I'm wondering if the fact that I'm taking more nowdays than ever before, yet feeling less, and then retarded is something more along the lines of seretonin syndrome. Does this make any sense at all? I'm sober right now, so I have no excuse if this is completely idiotic, but is this a possibility. In my situation, is less possibly more? The next time I do E I will be experimenting with this proposition. Instead of 3 then 2, I'm going 2 then 1. Anyone?
Le Junk


