• N&PD Moderators: Skorpio

Need Help Please

Unlucky

Bluelighter
Joined
Apr 26, 2007
Messages
594
As much as I hate posting in ADD due to unfriendly responses from some or a lack of any comments, the scepticism when discussing my unusual symptoms and being made to feel like im intruding in an area of the forum where some think they have ownership to...yet unfortunately I'm here once again without choice simply because Im stuck with stupid uncommon symptoms to drugs and dont know anywhere else I can turn to for help...so I'm posting this in hope that the few friendly kind people who have helped me in the past would once again make an effort to help me out again....

The problem I'm having is very specicfic and a very confusing one and difficult to explain....It usually happens only with Tramadol and Oxycodone although I havent really tried it with others....My body seems to be ok when I take one single dose dose of 50 mg Tramadol at once or one dose of 10mg Oxycodone but if I attempt to redose an hour or 2 later with smaller portion of the same medication to control the pain I end up having an adverse reaction simply due to the redosing process....for example....

Single dose of 50mg tramadol = no problem =D

50mg devided into 5 parts and taken at smaller portions of 10mg per hour rate = an adverse reaction :X

10mg oxy taken at once or every 4 hours = no problem =D

10mg oxy devided into 5 parts of 2mg per part and taken at smaller portions of 2mg per hour = an adverse reaction :X

10mg oxy taken at once = no problem =D + an additional 2mg taken 2 hours after the 10mg = an adverse reaction :X

This is the very reason why Im never able to take any slow release meds and only stick to instant release...Now you may ask if this is a problem then why not just stick to one single dose rather than redosing or taking smaller portions and the answer is because often after taking a single dose of 10mg oxy it wears of quickly and the pain comes back requiring an earlier dose. Also deviding my medication up into smaller portions is what I do to desensitise myself to gain tolerance. But even if I take smaller dose like 2mg following the initial larger dose of 10mg I still end up having an adverse reaction although initially the 10mg on its own caused me no problems whatsoever.

My theory from what I can see is that my body is exteremely sensitive to metobolisation process of the medication even if it is smaller doses. It seems it has no problem metobolising one single large dose but has difficulty with frequent smaller doses due to a build up perhaps ? I've read that Cytochrome P450 enzyme system in the liveris metabolized to the very active opioid analgesic oxymorphone some people are fast metabolizers resulting in reduced analgesic effect but increased adverse effects, while others are slow metabolisers resulting in increased toxicity without improved analgesia. Does the CYP2D6 sound like the reason for my symptoms ?
 
Tramadols bioavailability increased with repeated dosing, but that's not so with oxycodone. So the problem could be with the way your body metabolises the drugs. Can you describe the adverse reactions you get?
 
Tsukasa to the rescue again! Your such a cool and kind person and your always so quick to try and help me, Thanks man <3

What happens often after repeated administration is I get supression in my breathing and often forget to breathe and gasp for air when I do, I get sleep apnea if I dose off, an irregular and slow heart rate, raise in blood pressure, fever, feeling very ill and unwell...

What makes this situation odd is the fact that I can tolerate 1 large single dose of 10mg oxy or 50mg tramadol but I cant tolerate a series of smaller doses taken at hourly intervals which ultimately are a smaller and a fraction of the single dose of oxy or tramadol that im able to tolerate so it makes no sense that this would happen....

Also if its relevant I should mention Tramadol takes 3 hours before I can feel it and peaks at 4 - 5hours after taking it which seems like a very slow metobolisation rate? , sometimes at 3 hours it makes me feel great for an hour before it gets worse at the 4hr mark, where as oxy begins to work in 30- 45 mins after taking it and in 3 - 4 hrs later its all gone and im ready for another dose.

The other odd thing is I seem to be able to get more of a buzz from taking 5x10mg tramadol per hour rather than taking just one 50mg single dose, although they are both equalant to the same total dose..very odd, maybe its all related to the fact that my body has not been the same since the neurological crap I developed after an overdose.
 
It's one of my greatest pleasures to help other people. So I offer you my gratitude and blessings as well. But we're not physicians and we do not know the nature of your illness, thus cannot be of much help. So you get the same adverse reaction symptoms with both when you take them in a series of smaller doses taken at hourly intervals, correct? The one connection I'm seeing is they are both metabolised by the same enzyme (can anyone confirm this?) . Could have something to do with that, and their are ways to tweak the levels of those enzymes.
 
...maybe its all related to the fact that my body has not been the same since the neurological crap I developed after an overdose.

PTSD. You have a pre-conscious fear you will OD again and your body follows a scripted (and antithetical) series of physiological processes (e.g. hypoventilation, hyperthermia) each time it notices you are ingesting multiple doses of a chemical that once threatened your life. The portion of your nervous system that causes this reaction doesn't bother to calculate mg/hr: it sees many doses being eaten and it sends out the panic signal that kicks your typical series of "adverse effects" into action. Desensitization may lessen the acuity of this response (e.g. small amounts of IV heroin may make your body lose its fear of pills). Also, escitalopram.
 
So you get the same adverse reaction symptoms with both when you take them in a series of smaller doses taken at hourly intervals, correct?


Thats exactly correct. But it dosent happen when I take one single large dose.
 
Seep , thanks for your help man but I OD'd on recreational party drugs like meth and ecstacy not opioids, and if I was having an anxiety attack wouldnt I also feel a sense of fear or anxiety ? wouldnt my heart rate be high rather than in the low 40's and 50's? wouldnt I be alert and awake rather than falling asleep eaily whilst having adverse reactions and waking up with apnea? wouldnt I also have an adverse reactions to higher doses rather than a measely small dose ? I dont hypoventilate, I dont sweat, I dont feel anxious, worried or fear, I dont get chest pains, or an impending feeling of doom as people apperently do with anxiety attacks...Im not scared of dying, to be honest Ive had enough of this shit, only people who fear death have anxiety attacks.

If anything im more worried about taking 10mg oxy but nothing bad happens when I do granted that I have built up my exposure and tolerance but if I take an extra 2mg on top of the 10 mg an hr later I have a bad reaction , pyschologicaly my mind tells me an additional 2mg is basically NOTHING, not even worth registering as a significant event yet my body still has a reaction, how do you explain that ?

As for your suggestion to desensitise it the only reason why I can take oxy or tramadol or any other opiod at all in the first place, because if I hadnt desensitised myself to them then I remain hypersensitive to all opioids, I wouldnt be able to even take a minute dose let alone 10mg, so you see the problem is occuring after the desensitisation has succeeded.

As for the hyperthermia, I overheat everyday for the past 8 years due to neurological damage to my hypothalamus, Im overheating right now as I type this but im not feeling and emotional connection to it, im used to it, i couldnt care less, sure its uncomfortable but thats life ey, when I have an adverse reaction my overheating amplifies and yet im still calm.
 
The one connection I'm seeing is they are both metabolised by the same enzyme (can anyone confirm this?) . Could have something to do with that, and their are ways to tweak the levels of those enzymes.

yes. both metabolized by Cytochrome P450. drinking white grapefruit juice inhibits the cp450 system, to allow for slower metabolism.
 
Thanks Ell and Tsukasa. See guys maybe its not in my head afterall seeng as how I dont get this problem from other opioids like morphine and hydromorphone which according to Wiki dont get metobolized by the Cytochrome P450...

If it is infact the CYP450 responsible for causing me these odd symptoms then should I be trying to speed it up or slow it down with grapefruit juice?
 
Thanks Ell and Tsukasa. See guys maybe its not in my head afterall seeng as how I dont get this problem from other opioids like morphine and hydromorphone which according to Wiki dont get metobolized by the Cytochrome P450...

If it is infact the CYP450 responsible for causing me these odd symptoms then should I be trying to speed it up or slow it down with grapefruit juice?

"Cytochromes P450 use a plethora of both exogenous and endogenous compounds as substrates in enzymatic reactions"

Morphine, Hydromorphone and the rest of the opioids are metabolised by different Cytochrome P450 enzymes (usually CYP3A4, CYP2D6, etc).

You could be a fast or slow metaboliser (a portion of the population is deficient or overabundant in different enzymes, which would speed or slow drug metabolism greatly).

Talk to your doctor. Why don't you take the medication as directed? I'm assuming 1-2 tablets by mouth every 6-8 hours for pain as needed (or something similar)? Switching to another analgesic may be helpful as well. But definitly talk to your doctor, they will be able to properly reassess your treatment.
 
Hi. I mentioned panic but not panic attack. PTSD doesn't necessarily present with the classical panic attack (acute stress response) symptoms. It can present as a mixture of near-catatonic hypokinesia (apraxia?) and hyperthermia. Not that I'm in love with my hypothesis: it just sounds possible to me, especially since a brontosaurus dose of meclizine almost killed me in 2001 and I now get acute respiratory sloth each time I take several pills of even low-dose meclizine; but if I take one pill of the same amount of meclizine, I'm good.

Anyways that's just me. Is your formulation of tramadol time-released with absorption proportional to the pill's non-coated surface area? Otherwise, shouldn't you maybe rule out enzymatic disorders, as your adverse effects are not dose-dependent, but rather (it seems) a reaction to how many pieces of pill-matter you're swallowing?

Nothing is ever "all in the head"; neurophysiology is heavily physical (entirely physical, but not yet entirely understood).

Good luck and p.s. it'd be an interesting experiment if you were to (with supervision) induce a dissociative episode and then see if your adverse effects occur while you're not conscious of who you are.
 
Seep, Im quite happy to be a lab rat for any doctor, scientist or specialist who wants to induce an adverdse reaction by giving me an additional dose of opiods or giving me an opioid that im not tolerant to or even giving me a normal dose of oxy after a few week break which then will bring my tolerance back down to the hypersensitive threshold, believe me its not a pretty sight and very uncomfortable having an adverse reaction but im willing to put myself through it if it means I can finally understand why this is hapening to me even if it kills me, but unfortunately despite my repeated requests to my neurologists and specialists none of them want to touch it with a 10 foot pole just incase it turns out bad an they become liable, even though im willing to take full responsibility for it.

Based on the responses in this thread im starting to think that it is perhaps a result of Cytochrome P450, Ive just read that there are tests avaliable called "Roche AmpliChip Cytochrome P450 Genotyping" which analyzes Cytochrome P450 2D6 and 2C19 genotypes to determine how quickly the liver breaks down drugs and drug adverse reactions , unfortunately I dont know anywhere in Melbourne Australia that does this test or if its covered by health funds.
 
What the hell would your liver enzymes matter? The only way they cause you a problem because of exposure to unwanted metabolites. Taking a larger dose at one time instead of smaller doses over time (which seems to be your problem) would result in higher exposure to the theorized unwanted metabolites. Taking smaller doses over time would simply spread your exposure over many hours. It's unlikely you'd ever approach physiologically important metabolites.

The only response in this or the billions of other repetitive threads you've started here that makes any sense is the one Seep is presently putting forth.

Why not accept a reasonable response instead of searching for ever more preposterous answers?
 
Why not accept a reasonable response instead of searching for ever more preposterous answers?

Because I know my body well enough to know that its not PTSD, or anxiety related or psychosamatic because I dont have anything emotional going on in my head, I can bet my life on it that its not, obviously you dont believe me but everyone who knows me in real life including my specialists who known me for years and other whove seen me have these adverse reactions including my parents who take care of me know as well as I do its not either beacuse I dont show any signs of emotional discomfort. But I am going to see a psychiatrist or psychologist again just to re-confirm what I know and perhaps for some therapy from the frustration I've developed towards sceptical people.

Recently I had an adverse reaction is hospital while I was hooked up to heart rate and blood pressure monitor after being given morphine and the nurses were freaking out about the changes in my vitals and oxygen levels and the increase in my temperature but it was me who had to calm them down and tell them to relax and that it would subside and that its happened all before because I know how my body reacts to these things.

Would you accept an alternative reponse if you knew your body well enough to know with full certainty without doubt that there was no emotional basis to your symptoms ? Thats exactly what hapened when I first developed Dysautonomia, I got told it was anxiety related yet it turned out they were wrong and I was right after correct diagnosis just like I am again now. Just to entertain your hypothesis let me say.. Im a person of logic and if im going to be psychosamatic over an issue then it has to at least make sense to me logicaly first, seeng as it makes no sense that I would be able to tolerate a single large dose and have a reaction to repeated smaller dose my brain would not register that as as issue to get worked up about simply because it defys my logic.

Give me the benefit of the doubt, im not stupid enough to dismiss PTSD if I actually had it, check the symptoms on PTSD most people avoid situations that cause them PTSD but look at me I keep taking the very substances that you claim are the cause of my symptoms, I keep putting myself in the very situation people with PTSD avoid and why do i do it? because I dont care, whatever happens happens. Your comments are highly contridictory when you actually compare the symtoms of PTSD to my repetitive drug intake and behaviour.

I obviously dont learn my lesson I dont give a rats ass bout it, I'll continue having adverse reactions because its too late to cry about whatever is messed up in my body, and i'll do whatever I can to try an live a normal life including taking any substance I want even if its going to kill me at least it makes me feel normal again even temporarily and even if it means "making a billion repetitive threads" to get there as long as I find a solution to forcing my body to function as it used to. If something annoys me for eg..a hypersensitivity to drugs then I keep going back to it until it either breaks me or I break it because I'm a persistent fuker and im not going to give in to a wrong assumption like PTSD just because you dont have faith in my judgement of my own body or know me well enough to believe me.

EDIT: Whilst I actually apreciate you responding this time and you make a good point about the liver enzymes and have made me rethink perhaps its not an issue with Cytochrome P450 but thats all you should have said instead of bringing scepticism into it.
 
Last edited:
^ If I'm ever going to take any slow release or constant release medication I prefer to do it infront of a sceptic so at least if I have an adverse reaction its worth it on the account that I proved my point rather than waste my adverse reaction all by myself at home...perhaps Hammilton can invite me to his house =D
 
Is there any way you could get one of your doctors to let you fall asleep and then administer one of these drugs that causes you hyperthermia by IV? I want to see if all of this happens when you're not conscious to know it's being administered! It's pretty much the best experiment we have at this point to see what your role is in this.
 
Tsukasa said:
Tramadols bioavailability increased with repeated dosing, but that's not so with oxycodone.
...interesting! Can you prove this statement with some data please? Or a ref maybe?

seep said:
PTSD.[1]
...Desensitization may lessen the acuity of this response (e.g. small amounts of IV heroin may make your body lose its fear of pills).[2]
[1] PTSD = post-traumatic stress syndrome, I assume. That would be the "psychosomatic" explanation again (...which I still favour, too). Unfortunately this was constantly rejected as possible explanation, although is is still the most probable one. You won't find much acceptance for this answer, I'm afraid...
[2] While desensitization works well with lots of physiological responses, I would be careful to recommend this for a psychological issue. Things could turn ugly here. But it could work, of course (I just like to request some more caution).

I guess my answer is not welcome here anyway, as I still vote for "psychosomatic". In particular the different response to "1x50 mg tramadol" vs. "5x10 mg tramadol" makes me suspicious...

- Murphy
 
Unlucky said:
Because I know my body well enough to know that its not PTSD, or anxiety related or psychosamatic because I dont have anything emotional going on in my head, I can bet my life on it that its not, obviously you dont believe me but everyone who knows me in real life including my specialists who known me for years and other whove seen me have these adverse reactions including my parents who take care of me know as well as I do its not either beacuse I dont show any signs of emotional discomfort. But I am going to see a psychiatrist or psychologist again just to re-confirm what I know and perhaps for some therapy from the frustration I've developed towards sceptical people.

What you just don't seem to get is, that psychological disorders are rarely obvious to the sufferer, with respect to the symptoms. In other words: Your adverse reaction is maybe already your "emotional discomfort" (I'm no physician nor a psychologist). What are you expecting? Anxiety, fear and alike are common with PTSD but not strictly necessary!
Doesn't it irritate you somehow that the most frequent answer to all (!) your posts is constantly rejected as being simply "not possible"?! For the major part of the discussing folks here, you have not presented evidence that backs up your opinion. You also seem to constantly forget that folks here (including me!!!) are indeed trying to help, but this help is rejected as well.

I doubt that you really seek for help but just some other explanation than the most obvious one. Gee! Of course we all could be downright wrong with our assumptions. Unfortunately, all presented facts confirmed that theory until now... I just don't get it. :\

- Murphy
 
Top