CLOUDnine420
Bluelighter
I've been taking morphine for awhile and I know most of the information on bioavailability, but I was just reading a thread on oxycodone. In this thread someone said that when you take it orally it gives you a more sedating high, where as intranasal gives you a quicker rush and more "alert" or w/e word you want to use... ex. energetic maybe...?
So I was wondering if this was true with morphine also, because I'm trying to go for the high where I get the nods. Lately I haven't been able to acheive getting the nods
So for awhile I've been doing a little bit of both ROA ( oral and intranasal. ) Also smoke a little bit once in awhile, although I know this is a little more wasteful... it gives me a little better feeling. Anyways would it be better to just eat the pills to get the nods, rather than intranasal? I know the BA is higher orally but I kind of figured that snorting some would help because of the quicker onset.
Any information would be helpful because I'm starting to run low and I want to get the best feeling out of what I have left. Thanks in advance to anyone with knowledge on the subject!
So I was wondering if this was true with morphine also, because I'm trying to go for the high where I get the nods. Lately I haven't been able to acheive getting the nods

Any information would be helpful because I'm starting to run low and I want to get the best feeling out of what I have left. Thanks in advance to anyone with knowledge on the subject!
