If I am taking multiple opiates at once will the opioid effects of the two drugs be combined or will the drug with the higher affinity to the opioid receptors nullify or reduce the the opioid effect of the drug with a lower affinity?
For example, say I take 200mgs of morphine orally and 30mgs of hydromorphone orally at the same time. Say 30mg of hydromorphone is equal to 120mg of morphine, this means I have taken the equivalent of 320mg of oral morphine.
Can I expect the opioid and analgesic effect to be equivalent to 320 mg of morphine, or will the hydromorphone out compete the morphine and leave me with 120mg of oral morphine equivalent effect? or vice versa? Will the drugs share the receptor perfectly or will there be some nullified or wasted?
I know this question is very dependent on the Pharmacokinetics of each drug, so which opioids can be used together and which will block others and to what extent? Is the affinity directly correlated to the drugs per mg equivalent?
thanks
For example, say I take 200mgs of morphine orally and 30mgs of hydromorphone orally at the same time. Say 30mg of hydromorphone is equal to 120mg of morphine, this means I have taken the equivalent of 320mg of oral morphine.
Can I expect the opioid and analgesic effect to be equivalent to 320 mg of morphine, or will the hydromorphone out compete the morphine and leave me with 120mg of oral morphine equivalent effect? or vice versa? Will the drugs share the receptor perfectly or will there be some nullified or wasted?
I know this question is very dependent on the Pharmacokinetics of each drug, so which opioids can be used together and which will block others and to what extent? Is the affinity directly correlated to the drugs per mg equivalent?
thanks
