isthastuff
Greenlighter
- Joined
- Aug 15, 2010
- Messages
- 10
Hey bluelighters, I had a quick pharmacological question concerning Methylphenidate (Ritalin) and it's big chemical brother, Dexmethylphenidate (Focalin). Something I've noticed following insufflation of either the racemic Ritalin (dl-TMP) or the right-handed Focalin (d-TMP) is that the subsequent drip causes a small yet noticeable degree of local anesthesia when held at the tip of/just below the tongue. To my knowledge (right or wrong - please correct me in the case of the latter), Ritalin (as either a racemate or (dextrorotatory) enantiopure preparation) is very closely related to Cocaine in terms of both chemical structure and pharmacological effect (noradrenergic and dopaminergic reuptake inhibition and interference at each respective catecholamine's transportive enzymes). In light of these congruences, and with note to cocaine's established property of local anesthesia, my question is for those of you familiar enough with chemistry to hopefully explain to this curious 'new'lighter any/all of the following: 1) the reason for Ritalin's minor anesthetic property and specifically, if this effect is a product of a structural overlap between the two chemicals (explanation appreciated if this is the case) and 2) more broadly, what is it that, specific to structure and the pharmacological consequences thereof, is to blame for the symptom/effect of anesthesia on a local level? My thanks in advance to any willing to give this some time/consideration and in turn, a modicum of solace to my insatiably curious mind. Enjoy your day(s)/daze!
